The statement that would describe the shift from D1 to D2 is Demand for the product increased.
<h3>Why was there a shift from D1 to D2?</h3>
D2 is a curve that is to the right of D1 which means that it represents a higher level of demand for goods and services.
This means that for the demand to move from D1 to D2, there must have been an increase in the demand for the good or service and this could have been for any number of reasons including a reduction in the price of complimentary goods.
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Answer:
The risk premium on market is 8%
Explanation:
The CAPM or Capital Asset Pricing Model is used to calculate the required rate of return on a stock which is the minimum return that is expected or required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk as measured by the beta of the stock.
The formula to calculate r under the CAPM is,
r = rRF + Beta * rpM
Where,
- rRF is the risk free rate
- rpM is the risk premium on market
To calculate the risk premium on market, we will input the available values for r, rRF and beta in the equation above.
0.158 = 0.07 + 1.1 * rpM
0.158 - 0.07 = 1.1 * rpM
0.088 / 1.1 = rpM
rpM = 0.08 or 8%
So, the risk premium on market is 8%
Answer:
Net decrease in prepaid expenses of $30,000 will be added to the net income in adjustments to net income because it will be considered that working capital (inventory or any other expense) has been generated by the operations.
Net decrease in Accounts payable of $20,000 will be deducted from net income in adjustments to net income because decrease in accounts payable means that cash has been paid to the outstanding payables.
Net effect of the above transactions is $30,000 - $20,000 = $10,000
So, net income will be increased by $10,000 as net effect of the above adjustments.
That I do not know I am soo sorry
