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Advocard [28]
3 years ago
11

A broker needs $5950 to pay her irs tax lien. she has the opportunity to list a property at fair market value of $85000. what wo

uld her listing commission rate need to be in order to pay her debt assuming she will pay 2.8% to the selling broker?
Business
1 answer:
Lisa [10]3 years ago
7 0
<span>$5950 / $85000 = 7% + 2.8% = 9.8%</span>
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By raising the limit on insured losses the FDIC helps stabilize the system by instilling confidence.

If the consumer knows that their savings accounts are protected up to $250,000 they will be encouraged to spend money during a time of crisis.

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2 years ago
A company sells 800 units at $16 each, has variable costs of $12 per unit, and fixed costs of $1,200. Income is $
Inessa05 [86]

Assuming a company sells 800 units at $16 each, has variable costs of $12 per unit. The after-tax income is $1,200.

<h3>After-tax income</h3>

Using this formula

After-tax income=(Selling units×Selling price)-[(Variable costs×Selling price)+Fixed costs]×(1- tax rate)

Let plug in the formula

After-tax income=(800 units× $16 each)-[(800 units × $12 each)+$1200]×(1-.40)

After-tax income=$12,800-($9,600+$1,200)×0.60

After-tax income=$12,800-$10,800×0.60

After-tax income=$2,000×0.60

After-tax income=$1,200

Inconclusion the after-tax income is $1,200.

Learn more about after-tax income here:brainly.com/question/1775528

5 0
2 years ago
Social security and medicare are examples of:____.
artcher [175]

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c. governmental interventions

4 0
2 years ago
A company is selling bonds with a face value of $1,000 to raise money for a plant expansion. The bonds pay a coupon rate of 4% p
Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

10.26%

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

Net sales = $760

Face value of bonds = $1,000

Coupon rate = 4% = $1,000 × 4 ÷ 100

= 40

N = Number of Years = 5 annually = semiannually = 5 × 2

= 10 years

We assume, interest rate = 10% = 0.10

P = Coupon Rate ÷ 2 × (PVIFA,Interest Rate ÷ 2%,No. of Years) + Future Value(PVIF,Interest Rate ÷ 2%, No. of Years)

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)N] ÷ Interest Rate + Future Value[1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate) × N]

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1-1 ÷ (1 + 0.10 ÷ 2)^10] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1 + 0.10 ÷ 2)^10]

=$20 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1.05)^10] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1.05)^10]

=$20 × [1 -1 ÷ 1.6288946] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ 1.6288946]

= 420 × 7.72173 + $1,000 × 0.613913

= $154.4346 + $613.913

= $768.3476

= $768.35

But the given value is 760, so we assume interest rate = 11%

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1-1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)^N] ÷ Interest Rate + Future Value[1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)^N]

= $40 ÷ 2 × [1 - 1 ÷(1 + 0.11 ÷ 2)^10] ÷ 0.055 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1 + 0.11 ÷ 2)^10]

= $20 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1.055)^10] ÷ 0.055 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1.055)^10]

= $20 × [1 - 1 ÷ 1.70814446] ÷ 0.055 + $1000 × [1 ÷ 1.70814446]

= $20 × 7.5376255 + $1,000 × 0.5854306

= $150.75 + $585.43

= $736.18

At the Interest rate of 10% the price is more than $760 and at the Interest rate of 1% the price is less than $760. So the required rate lies in between 10% to 11%.

So required rate  

Yield To Maturity = Lower Interest Rate + (Difference Between Interest Rate) × Higher Price - Received Price ÷ Higher Price - Lower Price

= 1 0+( 11 - 10) × $768.35 - $760 ÷ $768.35 - $736.18

= 10 + 1 × $8.35 ÷ $32.17

= 10 + 0.26

= 10.26%

7 0
3 years ago
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