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3 years ago

Solve −2(n+3)−4=8 . The solution is n= .

Mathematics

1 answer:

Anton [14]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

n= -9

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplifying

-2(n + 3) + -4 = 8

Reorder the terms:

-2(3 + n) + -4 = 8

(3 * -2 + n * -2) + -4 = 8

(-6 + -2n) + -4 = 8

Reorder the terms:

-6 + -4 + -2n = 8

Combine like terms: -6 + -4 = -10

-10 + -2n = 8

Solving

-10 + -2n = 8

Solving for variable 'n'.

Move all terms containing n to the left, all other terms to the right.

Add '10' to each side of the equation.

-10 + 10 + -2n = 8 + 10

Combine like terms: -10 + 10 = 0

0 + -2n = 8 + 10

-2n = 8 + 10

Combine like terms: 8 + 10 = 18

-2n = 18

Divide each side by '-2'.

n = -9

Simplifying

n = -9

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Write the next three terms of the geometric sequence.

Sati [7]

Answer:

5, 1, 0.2

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide the number by 5 to get the next one.

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3 years ago

Michael is a basketball player who regularly shoots sets of 2 free-throws. Suppose that each shot has probability 0.60. , point,

Sati [7]

Answer:

0.1306

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution problem

Binomial distribution function is represented by

P(X = x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ

n = total number of sample spaces = number of free throws

x = Number of successes required = 6

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q = probability of failure = 1 - 0.60 = 0.40

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Hope this Helps!!!

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2 years ago

PLEASE HELP

antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

The principal amount is 5000 dollars = 3, 70,000 rupees (5000 dollars x 74 Rupees)

Rate = 2.5%

Time = 1 year

Now, on putting the values given in the formula

S.I.= 9,250 Rupees

Now we convert it into dollars by diving 9,250 rupees by 74 rupees.

We get,

9250/74 = 125 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

I need help with this ASAP! It's due today!

xenn [34]

Answer:

Secants – 1. <CBG 2. <AGF 3. <ABD

Tangent – 1. <CDE

Chords – 1. <BD 2. <DF 3. <BG 4. <BF 5. <GD 6. <FG

Angles – 1. 45 2. 75 3. 35 4. 70 5. 75 6. 55 7. 50 8. 25 9. 35 10. 70 11. 50 12. 25 13. 70 14. 50. 15. 60 16. 85 17. 95 18. 85 19. 95

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

a. Suppose we had $15,192 cash and invested it in the bank at 16 percent interest, how much would you have at the end of 1, 2, 3

Goryan [66]

Answer:

Part a) $\$17,622.72$

Part b) $\$20,442.36$

Part c) $\$23,713.13$

Part d) $\$27,507.23$

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

The compound interest formula is equal to

$A=P(1+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}$

where

A is the Final Investment Value

P is the Principal amount of money to be invested

r is the rate of interest in decimal

t is Number of Time Periods

n is the number of times interest is compounded per year

Part a) How much would you have at the end of 1 year?

in this problem we have

$t=1\ years\\ P=\$15,192\\ r=0.16\\n=1$

substitute in the formula above

$A=15,192(1+\frac{0.16}{1})^{1*1}=\$17,622.72$

Part b) How much would you have at the end of 2 year?

in this problem we have

$t=2\ years\\ P=\$15,192\\ r=0.16\\n=1$

substitute in the formula above

$A=15,192(1+\frac{0.16}{1})^{1*2}=\$20,442.36$

Part c) How much would you have at the end of 3 year?

in this problem we have

$t=3\ years\\ P=\$15,192\\ r=0.16\\n=1$

substitute in the formula above

$A=15,192(1+\frac{0.16}{1})^{1*3}=\$23,713.13$

Part d) How much would you have at the end of 4 year?

in this problem we have

$t=4\ years\\ P=\$15,192\\ r=0.16\\n=1$

substitute in the formula above

$A=15,192(1+\frac{0.16}{1})^{1*4}=\$27,507.23$

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2 years ago