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qaws [65]
3 years ago
10

Inventory is important in the supply chain for many different reasons. Why would you invest the​ company's money for inventory a

s opposed to some other​ asset?
A. to provide a hedge against inflation.
B. to tightly synchronize production and distribution processes.
C. to ensure that item cost is maximized.
D. to tightly synchronize a​ firm's production with its​ customers' demand.
Business
1 answer:
Makovka662 [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

All the answers are right

Explanation:

A.To provide a hedge against inflation. : in an inflationary economy, a company can invest in inventory in order to be prepared for the higher prices of raw materials to come. So they can maintain the company´s profit.

B. To tightly synchronize production and distribution processes: inventory of final products can help to minimize the effects of unexpected production problems.

C. To ensure that item cost is maximized: A company can buy a bulk of raw material since the cost of a large number of units is lower. So the final product's cost will be maximized.

D. to tightly synchronize a​ firm's production with its​ customers' demand: for example in a seasonal demand, There are certain months when the demand exceeds the production capacity. In theis case, in the lower season months, the company will be increasing the inventory in order to meet the demand when the high season comes.

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The Federal Reserve's tools to control the money supply include open-market operations, the discount rate, and interest payments
leva [86]

Answer:

PART-1  

How should each instrument be changed if the Fed wishes to decrease the money supply?

The Fed would deportment open-market sales, increase the discount rate, and raise interest paid on reserves.

PART-2)  

Will the change affect the monetary base and/or the money multiplier?

The money multiplier refers to the capacity of money that financial institute like banks produce with each dollar of funds. Money base is exaggerated by the open-market processes and discount rate. Any alteration in interest expenditures on reserves modifies the money multiplier.

3 0
4 years ago
Operating profit is essentially a measure of how efficient management is in generating revenues and controlling expenses. True F
Paul [167]

Answer:

true

Explanation:

Operating profit is referred to as the profit gained by the corporation in business. it is calculated by subtracting all expenses from the total profit over the given period.

it is considered to be the best way to determine how management tactics are helpful or beneficial for the organization. it helps to decide on the working policy for future goals.

3 0
3 years ago
Wat is accounting in economics
Mumz [18]

Answer:

Accounting and economics both involve plenty of number-crunching. But accounting is a profession devoted to recording, analyzing, and reporting income and expenses, while economics is a branch of the social sciences that is concerned with the production, consumption, and transfer of resources.

I hope it's helpful!

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is one of the value gaps that can undermine customer experiences and can damage relationships?
s2008m [1.1K]

Answer:

Service Quality Gaps

Explanation:

Service Quality simply refers to the level of satisfaction a customer gets from a service.

Therefore, Service Quality Gaps is one of the value gaps that can undermine customer experiences and can damage relationships.

This is because, based on the level of customer satisfaction, a relationship could be built or destroyed.

5 0
3 years ago
Aquaguard manufactures three models of water purifiers in three separate plants at Taiwan. These plants serve the demand in Euro
Zanzabum

Answer:

Aquaguard may choose any of the  two models to minimize the production variability in the new plant.

Explanation:

Model 1: Mean = 1000, Standard Deviation(SD) = 300

Model 2: Mean = 1000, SD = 300

Model 3: Mean = 1000, SD = 300

Coefficient of variation for model 1

C.V = ( SD ÷ Mean) × 100

= ( 300 ÷ 1000 ) × 100

= 30 %

Coefficient of variation for model 2

= ( 300 ÷ 1000 ) × 100

= 30 %

Coefficient of variation for model 3

= ( 300 ÷ 1000 ) × 100

= 30 %

 We conclude that all the models have same effect .

5 0
3 years ago
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