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9966 [12]
3 years ago
11

Assume that the equity method Equity Investment account relating to a subsidiary has a reported balance of $2,950,000, including

$150,000 of Goodwill. The fair value of the subsidiary is $2,750,000. The fair value of the subsidiary’s individually identifiable net assets is $2,500,000. The subsidiary has only one reporting unit, which is the same as the overall entity.
a. Should you perform a test for potential impairment of goodwill?
b. If so, do you conclude that goodwill is impaired?
c. Prepare the required journal entry ID where you find the goodwill asset to be impaired.
Business
1 answer:
Gennadij [26K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a) Yes, because the Fair value of the Subsidiary is less than the Equity Investment value.

b) Yes there is an Asset impairment and any asset impairment is set off against goodwill first.

c) Debit Goodwill impairment $50,000 Credit Goodwill Asset $50,000.

Explanation:

b) Balance of Equity Investment = $2,950,000 - 150,000 goodwill

                                                     = $2,800,000

Fair Value of Subsidiary             = $2,750,000

Impairment                                   = $50,000

Reason why deduct goodwill from the Equity Balance of $2,950,000 is because goodwill can be separately shown on the balance sheet under non current assets, therefore when testing for impairment on asset it must be balance of equity (net of good will) versus fair value of subsidiary.

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Bailey, Inc., is considering buying a new gang punch that would allow them to produce circuit boards more efficiently. The punch
e-lub [12.9K]

Answer:

14.2 years

Do not invest

yes

Explanation:

Discounted payback calculates the amount of time it takes to recover the amount invested in a project from it cumulative discounted cash flows

Cash flow each year = $12,000 - $2,000 = $10,000

Discounted cash flow in year 1 = 10,000 / 1.05 = 9.523.81

Discounted cash flow in year 2 = 10,000 / 1.05^2 = 9,070.29

Discounted cash flow in year 3 = 10,000 / 1.05^3 = 8,638.38

Discounted cash flow in year 4 = 10,000 / 1.05^4 = 8,227.02

Discounted cash flow in year 5 = 10,000 / 1.05^5 = 7,835.26

Discounted cash flow in year 6 = 10,000 / 1.05^6 = 7,462.15

Discounted cash flow in year 7 = 10,000 / 1.05^7 = 7,106.81

Discounted cash flow in year 8 = 10,000 / 1.05^8 = 6,768.39

Discounted cash flow in year 9 = 10,000 / 1.05^9 = 6,446.09

Discounted cash flow in year 10 = 10,000 / 1.05^10 = 6,139.13

Discounted cash flow in year 11 = 10,000 / 1.05^11 = 5846.79

Discounted cash flow in year 12 = 10,000 / 1.05^12 = 5568.37

Discounted cash flow in year 13 = 10,000 / 1.05^13 = 5303.21

Discounted cash flow in year 14 = 10,000 / 1.05^14 =5050.68

Discounted cash flow in year 15 = 10,000 / 1.05^15 = 4810.17

Discounted payback period = [-100,000 + ( discounted cash flows from year 1 to 14) ] + 1013.62/4810.17 = 14.2 years

The cash flows would turn positive between year 14 and 15

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3 years ago
Swifty Company purchased equipment for $256,800 on October 1, 2020. It is estimated that the equipment will have a useful life o
enot [183]

Answer:

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Depreciation for 2020 = $ 30,600 * ( 3 /12 ) = $ 7,650.

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Depreciation per unit = ( $ 256,800 - $ 12,000 ) / 48,000 = $ 5.1

Depreciation for 2020 = 1,000 * $ 5.1 = $ 5,100.

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Depreciation for 2020 = 600 * $ 12 = $ 7,200.

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Year - 1 used ( 3 / 12 = 0.25)

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Depreciation for 2022 = ($ 256,800 - $ 12,000 ) * ( 6.75 / 36 )

Depreciation for 2022 = $ 45,900.

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Depreciation for 2020 = $16,050.  

Depreciation for 2021 = ( $256,800 - $ 16,050) * 25%

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Option A

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These sales afford a chance for investors to purchase securities from the bank that did the primary underwriting for a distinct commodity.  When firms declare new securities, they are acquired in the primary securities market. The essential information to know regarding the primary market is that securities are bought instantly from an issuer.

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4 0
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