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3 years ago

What is 5/2 - 1/3 = 1/3y

Mathematics

1 answer:

kati45 [8]3 years ago

5 0

5/2 - 1/3 = 1/3y

I would convert the denominators to 6 to make this easier like this

15/6 - 2/6 = 2/6y

Now you can subtract easily like so

13/6 = 2/6y

Now divide

y = 13/6 divided by 2/6

To divide fractions do keep (numbers) change (sign) and flip (numbers)

y = 13/6 x 6/2

Now multiply:

78/12 = 6 1/2 = 6.5

y = 6.5 is your final answer!

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Graph the Rarabola.---Plot five points on the parabola: the vertex, two points to the left of the vertex, and tvbutton2Explanati

valentinak56 [21]

Which parabola?

$y=-x^2$

Equation of the parabola

y - y1 = 4p(x - x1)

The Vertex of the parabola given is (0, 0) because it does not have the values of x1 and y1.

Then Vertex = (0,0)

-Look for two values of y to the left and two points to the right.

You can choose the points that you which

x y

-3 y = -(-3)^2 = -9

-1 y = -(-1)^2 = -1

0 y = -(0)^2 = 0

1 y = -(1)^2 = -1

3 y = -(3)^2 = -9

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7 months ago

32% of college students say they use credit cards because of the rewards program. You randomly select 10 college students and a

Tems11 [23]

Answer:

a) $P(X=2)=(10C2)(0.32)^2 (1-0.32)^{10-2}=0.211$

b) $P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[0.0211+0.0995+0.211]=0.668$

c) $P(2 \leq x \leq 5)=0.211+0.264+0.218+0.123=0.816$

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

2) Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.32)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Part a

$P(X=2)=(10C2)(0.32)^2 (1-0.32)^{10-2}=0.211$

Part b

$P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)]$

$P(X=0)=(10C0)(0.32)^0 (1-0.32)^{10-0}=0.0211$

$P(X=1)=(10C1)(0.32)^1 (1-0.32)^{10-1}=0.0995$

$P(X=2)=(10C2)(0.32)^2 (1-0.32)^{10-2}=0.211$

$P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[0.0211+0.0995+0.211]=0.668$

Part c

$P(2 \leq x \leq 5)=P(X=2)+P(X=3)+P(X=4)+P(X=5)$

$P(X=2)=(10C2)(0.32)^2 (1-0.32)^{10-2}=0.211$

$P(X=3)=(10C3)(0.32)^3 (1-0.32)^{10-3}=0.264$

$P(X=4)=(10C4)(0.32)^4 (1-0.32)^{10-4}=0.218$

$P(X=5)=(10C5)(0.32)^5 (1-0.32)^{10-5}=0.123$

$P(2 \leq x \leq 5)=0.211+0.264+0.218+0.123=0.816$

6 0

3 years ago

Calculate the perimeter

Leto [7]

Answer:

48m

Step-by-step explanation:

12m - 4m = 8m / 2 = 4

12m + 4m + 4m + 4m + 4m + 8m + 8m + 4m = 48

3 0

2 years ago

Alma and Blanca are playing a game where they roll a pair of fair six-sided dice and try to predict the outcomes. Blanca thinks

bulgar [2K]

Answer:

Alma is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is a greater change to roll a 1 or a 5 then both. The chances of rolling both can be a bit high but it is also an easier chance that you will roll one of the other.

If you have 2 dice. To roll a 1 and a 5 you only get one change. But to roll one or the other you have 2 different chances. Therefore if you were to roll both dice you have a higher chance to roll a 1 or a 5 with having two dice.

3 0

2 years ago

What is the answer?

notka56 [123]

The answer to that is cubic

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers