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SSSSS [86.1K]
3 years ago
9

McFann Co. has two divisions, L and H. Division L is the company's low-risk division and would have a WACC of 8% if it were oper

ated as an independent company. Division H is the company's high-risk division and would have a WACC of 14% if it were operated as an independent company. Because the two divisons are the same size, the company has a composite WACC of 11%. Division H is considered a project with an expected return of 12%. Should McFann Co. accept or reject the prject?
A. Accept

B. Reject

On what grounds do you base your accept-reject decision?

A. Division H's project should be accepted, because its return is greater than the risk-based cost of capital for the divison.

B. Division H's project should be rejected, because its return is less than the risk-based cost of capital for the division.
Business
1 answer:
Goshia [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

B. Reject

B. Division H's project should be rejected, because its return is less than the risk-based cost of capital for the division.

Explanation:

As we can see that the project H Weighted average cost of capital is 14% and the expected rate of return is 12%

So based on this its expected rate of return is less than the cost of capital i.e Weighted average cost of capital

Therefore, the project should be rejected as we compared the Weighted average cost of capital and the expected rate of return

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Explain how each of the following situations would affect a nation's production possibilities curve. a. A law is passed whichmak
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

a. The production possibility curve(PPC) moves up and to the right because of increase in human skills resulting in enhanced production and output.

b. Due to bumper crop PPC moves up and to the right.

c. Due ton increased workers entering into the country PPC moves up and to the right ( increased output)

d. The workers are already unemployed hence it does not shifts PPC

e. Due to efficiency to convert salt water into fresh water output increases. PPC moves up and to the right.

f. Decreased productive capacity results in PPC shifting down and to the left.

6 0
3 years ago
A stock price is currently $40. It is known that at the end of one month it will be either $42 or $38. The risk-free interest ra
mr_godi [17]

Answer:

$1.70

Explanation:

Given that,

Current stock price= $40

Strike price= $39

After a period of one month, two states will be achievable.

- First state

Stock price=$42

Option value= 42-39

=$3

- Second state

Stock price= $38

Option value= 0

Upmove size of first state is

U= 42/40 =1.05

Downmove size of the second state is

D=38/40=0.95

The values given for the upside probability is given as:

Rf= 0.08

t= 1/12

πu = 0.567

The downside probability is equal to:

= 1 - 0.567

= 0.433

Therefore, the present value of option is:

(0.567 × 3) + (0.43 × 0) / e^0.08 × 1/12

= 1.70

Thus, the value of a one-month European call option is $1.70

8 0
4 years ago
Georgia Company uses the precentage of recievables method for recording bad debt expense. The accounts recievable balance is 600
lozanna [386]

Answer:

0.04 *60,0000= 2400

                                                       Debt                                     Credit

Bad debt expense                            2400

Accounts receivables                                                                     2400

Allowance for doubtful accounts     2400

Bad dent expense                                                                          2400

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Linda's Luxury Travel (LLT) is considering the purchase of two Hummer limousines. Various information about the proposed investm
sammy [17]

Answer:

1) Accounting rate of return is 8.2%

2) Payback period is 5.95 years

3) Net present value (NPV) is ($88,643.26)

4) Option B

Explanation:

Initial Investment = $720,000 , Useful life = 10 years , Salvage Value = $100,000

Annual Net Income generated = $59,040 , Cost of capital = 14%

Depreciation = ($720,000 - $100,000) ÷ 10 = $62,000

Annual Cash flows = $59,040 + $62,000 = $121,040

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= (59,040 ÷ 720,000) × 100

= 8.2%

2. Payback Period = Initial Investment ÷ Annual Cashflows

= 720,000 ÷ 121,040

= 5.95 years.  

3. PV of cash flows = 121,040 × PVAF(14% for 10 years)

= 121,040 × 5.2161

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Net present value (NPV) = (88,643.26)

4. If IRR = Discount rate, then NPV = 0

If IRR < Discount Rate, Then NPV is negative

If IRR > Discount Rate, Then NPV is positive

Here NPV is negative, so IRR is less than discount rate i.e.14%

5 0
4 years ago
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