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Nata [24]
2 years ago
15

Suenette plans to save $600 at the end of Year 1, $800 at the end of Year 2, and $1,000 at the end of Year 3. If she earns 3.4 p

ercent on her savings, how much money will she have saved at the end of Year 3?
Business
1 answer:
Kay [80]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Total savings= $2,468.7

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Suenette plans to save $600 at the end of Year 1, $800 at the end of Year 2, and $1,000 at the end of Year 3.

Annual rate= 3.4%

To calculate the final value of the investment, we need to apply the following formula to each deposit:

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

Deposit 1= 600*1.034^2= 641.50

Deposit 2= 800*1.034= 827.2

Deposit 3= 1,000

Total= $2,468.7

You might be interested in
The owner of a bicycle repair shop forecasts revenues of $240,000 a year. Variable costs will be $70,000, and rental costs for t
Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

1. Adjusted Accounting Profits

- This method gives cashflow by adjusting revenue for expenses.

Earnings before tax

= Revenue - variable cost - rent cost - depreciation

= 240,000 - 70,000 - 50,000 - 30,000

= $90,000

Earnings After tax

= 90,000 ( 1 - tax rate)

= 90,000 ( 1 - 30%)

= $63,000

Add back depreciation as it is a non-cash expense

Operating cashflow = 63,000 + 30,000

= $93,000

2. Cash inflow/cash outflow analysis

Cash outflow is removed from inflow.

= Cash inflow - outflow

= 240,000 - variable cost - rent cost - tax

= 240,000 - 70,000 - 50,000 - 27,000

= $93,000

Tax = Earnings before tax * 30%

= 90,000 * 30%

= $27,000

3. The depreciation tax shield approach.

The tax shield that depreciation affords is added to the earnings after tax.

= Revenue - variable cost - rent cost

= 240,000 - 70,000 - 50,000

= $120,000

After tax = 120,000 * ( 1 - 30%)

= $84,000

Depreciation tax shield = depreciation * tax

= 30,000 * 30%

= $9,000

Cashflow = 84,000 + 9,000

= $93,000

4. Are the above answers equal?

Yes they are. All give an operating cash-flow of $93,000.

4 0
3 years ago
Determinant Company is a price − taker and uses a target − pricing approach. Refer to the following information: Production volu
Drupady [299]

Answer:

$18,315,000

Explanation:

Total Income :

= 15% of Total assets

= $13,900,000 × 15%

= $2,085,000

Total Sales :

= Market price × Production volume

= $34 × 600,000

= $20,400,000

So, Target full product cost in total for the year :

=  Total Sales - Total Income

= $20,400,000 - $2,085,000

= $18,315,000

3 0
2 years ago
Diamond Boot Factory normally sells its specialty boots for $35 a pair. An offer to buy 110 boots for $29 per pair was made by a
Marat540 [252]

Answer:

Since there is no loss occur from these sales and rather $15 per pair is profit from the sale of boots. So it should be accepted.

Explanation:

Now the calculation of differential income or loss per pair of boots from selling to the organization,

8 0
3 years ago
Johnny Cake Ltd. has 30 million shares of stock outstanding selling at $40 per share and an issue of $40 million in 8 percent, a
erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

WACC = 0.16637 OR 16.637%

Explanation:

WACC or weighted average cost of capital is the cost of a firm's capital structure which can comprise of debt, preferred stock and common equity. The WACC for a firm with only debt and common equity can be calculated as follows,

WACC = wD * rD * (1-tax rate)  +  wE * rE

Where,

  • w represents the weight of each component based on market value in the capital structure
  • r represents the cost of each component
  • D and E represents debt and equity respectively

To calculate WACC, we first need to calculate the Market value an cost of equity.

The market value of equity = 30 million shares * $40 per share

MV of equity = $1200 million

The cost of equity can be found using the formula for Price today (P0) under constant growth model of DDM.

P0 = D1 / (r - g)

40 = 4 / (r - 0.07)

40 * (r - 0.07) = 4

40r - 2.8 = 4

40r = 4+2.8

r = 6.8 / 40

r = 0.17 or 17%

MV of debt = 40 million * 96.5%  => $38.6 million

Total MV of capital structure = 38.6 + 1200 = 1238.6 million

WACC = 38.6/1238.6  *  0.08  *  (1-0.33)  +  1200/1238.6  *  0.17

WACC = 0.16637 OR 16.637%

4 0
2 years ago
Marshall Inc. recently hired your consulting firm to improve the company's performance. It has been highly profitable but has be
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

148.02 days

Explanation:

The computation of the cash conversion cycle is shown below:

As we know that

Cash conversion cycle is = Days inventory outstanding + days sale outstanding - days payable outstanding

where,

Number of days inventory outstanding is

= Average inventory ÷ cost of goods sold per day

= $75000 ÷ ($360,000 ÷ 365 days)

= 76.04 days

Number of days sales outstanding is

= Average account receivable ÷ Average sales per day

= $160,000 ÷ ($600,000 ÷ 365)

= 97.33 days

And, the number of days payable outstanding is

= Average accounts payable ÷ cost pf goods sold per day

= $25,000 ÷ ($360,000 ÷ 365)

= 25.35 days

So, the cash conversion cycle is

= 76.04 days + 97.33 days - 25.35 days

= 148.02 days

3 0
3 years ago
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