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irinina [24]
3 years ago
10

Is 40 a reasonable estimate of a quotient for 78,114 ÷ 192? Explain your reasoning

Mathematics
2 answers:
mr_godi [17]3 years ago
7 0

yes but no because you would have to put a 6 at the end so it should look like this.406.84375


maxonik [38]3 years ago
6 0

40 is not a reasonable estimate for the quotient. 78,114 divided by 192 equals 406.84375, or 407. It's very underestimated for the actual quotient. More reasonable estimates would be 400, or 410. So, since it was so underestimated, it is not a reasonable estimate.


I hope all of this helps! :)

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__________________________________________

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