Answer:
$42.5 billion
Explanation:
the expected value formula = ∑ (valueₙ x probabilityₙ)
expected value = (low value x probability of low value) + (most likely value x probability of most likely value) + (high value x probability of high value)
= ($5 billion x 20%) + ($45 billion x 70%) + ($100 billion x 10%) = $1 billion + $31.5 billion + $10 billion = $42.5 billion
Given that <span>the U.S. dollar exchange rate increased from $0.96 Canadian in June 2011 to $1.03 Canadian in June 2012, and it
decreased from 81 Japanese Yen in June 2011 to 78 Japanese Yen in June 2012.
Between June
2011 and June 2012, the U.S. dollar appreciated against
the Canadian dollar.
Between June 2011 and June 2012,
the U.S. dollar depreciated against the Japanese Yen.</span>
Answer:
The answer is narrower competitive scope.
Explanation:
In a narrow competitive scope, a business might choose a focus strategy which can be oriented to cost leadership or differentiation. When implementing a focus strategy, the company chooses to only produce goods or provide services to a certain segment of people. In a cost leadership strategy, the business might choose to engage on initiatives that would lead it to be identified from its ability to provide the lowest possible price for its target segment. When choosing a differentiation strategy instead, the company’s competitive advantage would be its ability to provide a wide range of products.
¿ʇuǝɯʎɐd ɥʇ8 ɹnoʎ ǝpɐɯ noʎ ɹǝʇɟɐ ןɐdıɔuıɹd pıɐdun ǝɥʇ sı ʇɐɥʍ ˙5472$ sı ʇuǝɯʎɐd ןɐnuuɐ ɹnoʎ ʇɐɥʇ punoɟ puɐ uoıʇɐןnɔןɐɔ ǝɥʇ pıp noʎ ˙%7 ɟo ǝʇɐɹ ʇsǝɹǝʇuı ןɐnuuɐ ǝʌıʇɔǝɟɟǝ uɐ ʇɐ sɹɐǝʎ 51 ɹǝʌo ʇuǝɯʎɐd ʎןɹɐǝʎ ןɐnbǝ uı pıɐdǝɹ ǝq oʇ sı uɐoן ʞuɐq 000'52$ ɐ
Answer:
the correct answer is $150
Explanation:
TC=500 + 150q - 20q^2 + q^3
AVC=(150Q-20Q^2+Q^3)/Q
=150-20Q+Q^2
When AVC is at its minimum means that the marginal cost( CM) is igual to AVC, so we could consider this analysis:
CM= d(TC)/dq =150-40Q+3Q^2
CM=AVC
150-40Q+3Q^2=150-20Q+Q^2
Join similar terms:
150-150-40Q+20Q+3Q^2-Q^2=0
0-20Q+2Q^2=0
Q(-20+2Q)=0
Q_1=0 y Q_2=20/2=10
with q_1 with q_2
150-40*0+3*0=150-20*0+0 150-40*10+3*10^2=150-20*10+10^2
$150=$150 150-400+300 =150-200+100
$50= $ 50
We have two solution if we assume that q=0 like the minimum then the results is $150.
f we assume that q=10 like the minimum then the results is $50.
