Answer:
$50,100
Explanation:
Given that
Acquired value of a financial asset other than principal market = $50,000
Sale value of the identical instrument in principal market = $50,100
Transaction cost = $200
For reporting the fair value, we have to exclude the transaction cost i.e $200 and consider that cost which is to be received while exchanging i.e $50,100
This sale value would be equal to the fair value i.e $50,100 should be reported as a fair value
Answer:
C) achieved impressive growth rates of real GDP per person during 1995-2009.
Explanation:
First of all, it is GDP per capita, not GDP per person.
If we want examples to prove this argument, all we need to do is look at China, India, Brazil, South Africa and even Russia (to a lower extent). These are the famous BRICS, countries that had huge growth rates during that period (1995 - 2009). After the great recession (2008 - 2010) their economic growth slowed down.
Answer:
$2
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
As we know that
Net realizable value = Selling price − Cost of completion
= $
60 - $10
= $50
And, the cost of the item M-23 is $52
So, the write down of inventory value of the item M-23 is
= Cost of the item - net realizable value
= $52 - $50
= $2
We simply deduct the cost from the net realizable value so that the write down value could come
Remainder part of the Question:
Year Nominal avg. CPI
2008 16.00 202
2009 17.00 207
2010 18.00 209
Answer:
Option D Both real and nominal average hourly earnings increased.
Explanation:
The real average hourly rate for year 2008 = 16 * 100 / 202 = 7.92%
The real average hourly rate for year 2009 = 17 * 100 / 207 = 8.21%
The real average hourly rate for year 2010 = 18 * 100 / 209 = 8.61%
We can see from the above scenario that the real avearage hourly rate has increased from the year 2008 to year 2010. We can also see that the inflation has also increased as the CPI is growing from the year 2008 to 2010.
