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3 years ago

The biggest transportation mode in terms of spending is: a. Rail b. Trucking c. Air d. Ocean e. Pipeline

Business

1 answer:

storchak [24]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Air

Explanation:

In terms of spending, the biggest mode of transportation is air transportation. It is used to convey items that are perishable and that have relatively high value.

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During May, Bergan Company accumulated 2,500 hours of direct labor costs on Job 200 and 3,000 hours on Job 305. The total direct

alex41 [277]

Answer: Please see answers in explanation column

Explanation:

a)Total Labor Cost for Job 200 = Labor Hours x Direct labor rate

= 2,500 x $ 28

= $ 70,000

b)Total Labor Cost for Job 305 = Labor Hours x Direct labor rate

= 3,000 x $ 24

= $ 72,000

Labor Cost for Job 200 and Job 305 during May = $ 70,000 + $ 72,000

= $ 142,000

Date Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit

May 31st Work In Progress $142,000

Wages Payable $ 142,000

6 0

3 years ago

Different customer statement types are available to suit different client situations. Heather wants to help her client send out

motikmotik

Answer: b. Open Item

Explanation:

The statement that Heather wants to help a client send out is to include unpaid invoices, unapplied payments, and Credit Memos which are essentially signs that the creditor has not been paid.

An open item statement would therefore work best because it is to include open accounts that are yet to be paid so will include all those entries described above.

8 0

3 years ago

You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $276,000, has a three-year life, and has pr

kramer

Answer:

Techron I

-$154,842

Techron II

-$144,981

Explanation:

Techron I

Cash Flow From Year 1 to Year 3

Pretax operating costs ($75,000)

Depreciation ($276,000 / 3) ($92,000)

Profit before tax ($167,000)

Tax (21% x $167,000) $35,070

Profit after tax ($131,930)

Add back Depreciation $92,000

Cash Flow after tax ($39,930)

Terminal Value = Salvage value - Tax = $52,000 - ($52,000 x 21%) = $41,080

NPV = ($276,000) + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-1] + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-2] + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-3] = ($276,000) + ($35,652) + ($31,832) + ($28,421) = ($371,905)

EAC = NPV/(1-(1+r)^-n)/r

EAC = -371,905 / ( 1 - ( 1 + 12% )^-3/12% = -$154,842

Techron II

Cash Flow From Year 1 to Year 3

Pretax operating costs ($48,000)

Depreciation ($480,000 / 5) ($96,000)

Profit before tax ($144,000)

Tax (21% x $167,000) $30,240

Profit after tax ($113,760)

Add back Depreciation $96,000

Cash Flow after tax ($17,746)

Terminal Value = Salvage value - Tax = $52,000 - ($52,000 x 21%) = $41,080

NPV = ($480,000) + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-1] + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-2] + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-3] = ($480,000) + ($15,845) + ($14,147) + ($12631) = ($522,623)

EAC = NPV/(1-(1+r)^-n)/r

EAC = -522,623 / ( 1 - ( 1 + 12% )^-5/12% = -$144,981

7 0

3 years ago

If a firm engages in final assembly in its home operations, then which of the following operations of the firm in a foreign coun

Talja [164]

Answer:

D) Marketing

Explanation:

Vertical foreign direct investment (FDI) refers to companies moving upstream (R&D and manufacturing process) or downstream (distribution and selling process) in different value chain stages in a host country.

In this case, downstream vertical FDI includes marketing activities done at the host country. Upstream vertical FDI would include the purchase of component parts in the host country.

3 0

3 years ago

An investor purchased 100 shares of the cdl growth and income fund 3 years ago when the pop was $12 and the nav was $11.50. all

Norma-Jean [14]

The investor will show a capital loss of $155.

We gather the following information from this question:

Pop of the fund three years ago : $12

NAV of the fund three years ago : $11.50

Current Pop : $11

Current NAV : $10.45

Number of shares : 100 shares.

We need to calculate capital loss or gain on the 100 shares in the mutual fund.

While taking the cost per unit, we need to consider the public-offer-price (pop) into consideration, since an investor can only buy the shares at pop.

Similarly, while selling the shares, the shareholder can liquidate his position by selling back to the mutual fund at the NAV prevailing at the end of the business day on which he wants to sell.

So, the formula to calculate capital gain or loss is:

$Capital gain or (loss) = (NAV per unit at liquidation - POP at purchase ) * No. of shares$

$Capital gain or (loss) = ($10.45 - $12 ) * 100$

$Capital gain or (loss) = ($155)$

3 0

3 years ago