Answer:
Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002.
Explanation:
Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is a legal framework which was passed by the 107th U.S Congress on the 30th of July, 2002. The law required that investment banking be completely made rid of research analysts who works at a broker-dealer firms, so that the analysts are not influenced to write favorable reports to enhance their potential investment banking businesses.
Hence, the legislation that requires a broker-dealer's research analysts to be completely separated from that firm's investment banking department is the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002.
<em>It is a law that imposes a stiffer penalty for any securities related law break offence by the accountants, auditors etc by mandating strict reforms to the existing securities regulations. </em>
customers are always right
don't argue with the customers
don't switch to tags
Answer:
The correct answer is b) The first tranche has the highest prepayment risk.
Explanation:
A collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) is a type of security backed by mortgage. It is comprised of a pool of mortgages that are bundled together and sold as an investment. Prepayment risk is the risk of loss of interest income due to early repayment of the principal by the borrower.
In the given situation, there are three tranches. The first tranche has the highest prepayment risk because it is receiving principal at the earliest. Hence, there is more of a chance of this principal being returned early and the CMO holder losing out on potential interest. Therefore, the prepayment risk of the first tranche is the highest among all three tranches.
The anticholinergic psychedelics increases pupil size and
increase heart rate, respectively.
Deliriants are a class of hallucinogen.
The term was introduced by David
F. Duncan and Robert
S. Gold to distinguish these drugs from psychedelics and dissociatives,
such as LSD and ketamine respectively,
due to their primary effect of causing delirium, as
opposed to the more lucid states produced by other hallucinogens (psychedelics
and dissociatives).
Answer:
the second four weeks
Explanation:
its the above answer because his vacation was only for the first week while the layoff was the second