Answer:
it is algebraic expression
There are two blue marbles so you have a 2/8 probability of drawing a blue marble on each draw since the marble is replaced after the first draw. 2/8 can be simplified to be 1/4 and then converted to be 0.25 per draw. 0.25 plus 0.25 equals 0.5. Since we are dealing with percentages multiply 0.5 x 100 which equals 50. Now take 50 and divided by the total number of marbles in the bag which is 8. 50 divided by 8 equals 6.25. So it would be about 6%.
Answer:
0.0313
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that in the shipment of 71 vials, only 13 do not have hairline cracks
Probability of not having a hairline cracks = 
If you randomly select 2 vials from the shipment
(Probability of not having a hairline cracks)' =
= 
what is the probability that none of the 2 vials have hairline cracks.
i.e 
= 0.183 × 0.171
= 0.0313
Hence, the probability that none of the 2 vials have hairline cracks = 0.0313