Answer:
$2200000
Explanation:
Given: Beginning inventory= $500000.
Inventory purchased= $2000000 with discount of 10%.
Freight cost= $200000.
Ending Inventory= $300000.
Cost of goods sold= 
⇒ Cost of goods sold= 
⇒ Cost of goods sold= 
⇒ Cost of goods sold= 
Opening parenthesis
⇒ Cost of goods sold= 
∴ Cost of goods sold= 
Hence, $2200000 is the company’s 2017 cost of goods sold.
A risk is behind the uncertainty that means situation when there is more than one possible outcome to decision and where the probability of each specific outcome is not know.
<h3>What is a
risk?</h3>
This refers to the chance either high or low that any hazard will actually cause somebody harm.
For instance, the act of working alone away from your office can be a hazard and the risk of personal danger may be high.
It is true that uncertainty that means situation when there is more than one possible outcome to decision and where the probability of each specific outcome is not know, but a risk is behind tne situation.
Read more about risk
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Answer:
A) It will decrease prior service cost and, as prior service cost is amortized, will decrease pension expense.
Explanation:
<em>Prior service cost</em> is the cost of additional benefits that an employee is entitled to receive for service rendered over a period of time due to an amendment in pension plan.
<em>Prior service cost is amortized</em> by adding equal amount to each future period of service of each employee that are expected to receive the benefits of the amended pension plan.
Therefore,due to the extended retirement age, the prior service cost will increase and as the service cost is amortized, it will decrease the pension expenses of the company.
Answer:
we are only given information about assets A and B, no information is given about assets C or D. But you should be able to solve the question in a similar manner.
- rate of return asset A = 42.86%
- rate of return asset B = 25%
Explanation:
using the future value formula
Asset A:
future value = present value x (1 + r)ⁿ
future value = $200
present value = $140
n = 1
1 + r = $200 / $140 = 1.4286
r = 0.4286 = 42.86%
Asset B:
1 + r = $200 / $160 = 1.25
r = 0.25 = 25%
