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Tpy6a [65]
3 years ago
13

The pharmaceutical company Merck's new drug Vioxx was a blockbuster, generating revenues of $2.5 billion a year by 2002 and grow

ing fast. When allegations that the drug caused heart attacks and strokes began to appear in the medical community, and that Merck had suppressed evidence about Vioxx's dangerous side effects from early clinical trials, Merck announced the voluntary withdrawal of Vioxx from the market. In this example, Merck provides an example of what can happen if a company deviates from its?
Business
2 answers:
ira [324]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

<u>Core values</u>

Explanation:

The core values of any pharmaceutical company would always put the interest of it customers first. This would involve proper testing of drugs against any adverse side effects on patients.

In this case, Merck had suppressed evidence about it new drug Vioxx's dangerous side effects from early clinical trials showing a high disregard for it core values.

nalin [4]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Core Values

Explanation:

In the given scenario, Merck has deviated from its core values which are dedicated to the healthcare sector and transparency of drug development. It manipulated and didn't made the side effects of the drug public during testing.

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On the food label for a package of crackers, what does a 15 percent daily value for iron mean?
Tanya [424]
A 15% percent daily value for iron means that one serving of the cracker provides 15 percent of the iron that the average person needs each day.
The Daily Value or the DVs for short is an indicator that shows information about the nutrient that can be provided in one serving of the food for an average person. The average person is a healthy adult who consumes exactly 2000 calories a day which became an indicator basis for The Daily Value<span>.</span>
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Meiji Isetan Corp. of Japan has two regional divisions with headquarters in Osaka and Yokohama. Selected data on the two divisio
abruzzese [7]

Answer:

Please check the info below

Explanation:

1. For Osaka

Margin =  Net Operating Income / Sales *100

= $ 792000 / $9900000 *100

= 8.00%

Turnover = Sales / Average Operating Assets * 100

= $ 9900000 / $ 2475000 * 100

= 4.00%

ROI =  Margin * Turnover

= 8% *4 %

= 32.00%

Hence the correct answer is 32.00%

For Yokohama :

Margin =  Net Operating Income / Sales *100

= $ 2900000 / $ 29000000*100

= 10.00%

Turnover = Sales / Average Operating Assets * 100

= $ 29000000 / $ 14500000* 100

= 2.00%

ROI =  Margin * Turnover

= 10% *2 %

= 20.00%

Hence the correct answer is 20.00%

2. The correct answer is  

Osaka = $ 371,250

Yokohama = $ 435,000

3. The correct answer is No

This is because since Osaka has a higher ROI, Yokohama’s greater amount of residual income is not an indication that it is better managed

4 0
3 years ago
Levine Inc., which produces a single product, has prepared the following standard cost sheet for one unit of the product.
Y_Kistochka [10]
Hi! I don’t know what any of this means but I hope you have an amazing day and I hope god/allah/etc. blesses you :)
sorry I couldn’t answer
4 0
3 years ago
A question that can be answered by observing and analyzing the world as it is known:
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]
Empirical Question is a question that can be answered by observing and analyzing the world as it is known:
5 0
4 years ago
Refer to the information above. Assume that in its financial statements, Tilton Products uses the 150%-declining-balance method
jeka94

Answer:

Depreciation expense in 2009 = $8,250

Depreciation expense in 2010 = $14,953.13

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

On April 30, 2009, Tilton Products purchased machinery for $88,000. The useful life of this machinery is estimated at 8 years, with an $8,000 residual value.

Refer to the above data. Assume that in its financial statements, Tilton Products uses the 150%-declining-balance method and the half-year convention. Depreciation expense in 2009 and 2010 will be:

The explanation of the answers is now provided as follows:

Depreciation rate = 150% / Estimated useful life = 150% / 8 = 0.1875

Since the half-year convention is assumed, it implies that only half of the first year which is 2009 depreciation will be claimed while the full depreciation will be claimed for the rest of the year. Therefore, we have:

Depreciation expense in 2009 = (Cost of the machinery * Depreciation rate) / 2 = ($88,000 * 0.1875) / 2 = $8,250

Book value at the beginning of 2010 fiscal year = Cost of the machinery - Depreciation expense in 2009 = $88,000 - $8,250 = $79,750

Depreciation expense in 2010 = Book value at the beginning of 2010 fiscal year * Depreciation rate = $79,750 * 0.1875 = $14,953.13

8 0
3 years ago
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