The correct answer is A.) f(x)=

x+1
This is because using slope intercept form (y=mx+b), we can solve.
m = slope
b= y-intercept
If you look at the graph, you can see the line crosses they y-axis at 1.
And if you follow the line using rise over run, you find that it is 1/3.
But because it is a negative line, it makes the slope negative.
Hope this helps!
Yes Lisa is correct 43 is a 2 digit number 4 is one digit and 3 is a digit so it makes two digits 43 is a prime number because 43 has no positive divisors rather than 1 and itself.
SO answer is YES
The percentage given shows that the amount is decreasing by 8%.
<h3>How to illustrate the information?</h3>
From the information given, the function is f(x) = 9,628(0.92)x. This illustrates that the amount is decreasing by 8% she compared to the previous year. This was computed as:
= 1 - 0.92
= 0.08
= 8%
For part B, the percentage change will be:
= (8,972 - 8,074.80)/8972 × 10
= 10%
Therefore, the account recorded a greater percentage change in amount of money over the previous year is account B as 20% is lore than 8%.
Learn more about percentages on:
brainly.com/question/24304697
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