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3 years ago

I need help solving this math problem.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Afina-wow [57]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

∠RQS = 100°

Step-by-step explanation:

The angles 5x + 5 and 11x - 65 form a linear pair. That is they sum to 180°

Sum the 2 angles and equate to 180, that is

5x + 5 + 11x - 65 = 180

16x - 60 = 180 ( add 60 to both sides )

16x = 240 ( divide both sides by 16 )

x = 15

∠RQS = 11x - 65 = (11 × 15) - 65 = 165 - 65 = 100°

You might be interested in

If f(x)=x^2 + 8x find f(d-3)

pogonyaev

F(x)=x^2 +8x
f(d-3) basically what we get from this is that the x value is d-3
to find f(d-3) simply plug in d-3 for every x
f(d-3)=(d-3)^2 + 8(d-3)
that would be one form of the answer, but we can also continue multiplying it out
f(d-3)= d^2-6d+9+8d-24
add like terms
f(d-3)=d^2+2d-15

have a nice day and i hope this helps :)

7 0

2 years ago

Can you guys help me?

Simora [160]

8 if not then i’m sorry

8 0

3 years ago

32 gallons of water to wash 4 loads of dishes, How many gallons of water will the dishwasher use to wash 10 loads of dishes

lara [203]

32/4 = 8/1 =80/10 so 80 gallons

3 0

2 years ago

Tic-tac-toe: In the game of tic-tac-toe, if all moves are performed randomly the probability that the game will end in a draw is

Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And if we find the individual probability we got:

$P(X=0)=(7C0)(0.127)^0 (1-0.127)^{7-0}=0.3865$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=7, p=0.127)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want to find this probability:

$P(X \geq 1)$

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And if we find the individual probability we got:

$P(X=0)=(7C0)(0.127)^0 (1-0.127)^{7-0}=0.3865$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A store is having a Back To School Sale.The total for a skirt,a pair of shoes,and a pair of socks is $34.95 before tax.The pair

Veronika [31]

Answer:

15.60

Step-by-step explanation:

The sub total before tax is 34.95. You know the socks cost 3.75 and the skirt and shoes are the same or equal price. This means after subtracting the cost of the socks, you spent 34.95 - 3.75 = 31.20. Since the skirt and shoes cost the same, divide 31.20 by 2. This is $15.60.

4 0

3 years ago