Answer:
loss of $ 1,400,000.00
Explanation:
Amount of share : two million:
offer price per share: $55
selling price per share: $53.80
Loss per share: $1.20
Total loss= $1.2X2,000,000= ($2,400.000.00)
Earning from spread: 0.5x2,000,000.00 =$1,000.000.00
Net earning: (2,400,000.00)+$1,000,000.00=($ 1,400,000.00)
loss of $ 1,400,000.00
Answer:
C. Depreciation is a current expense of a cash outflow in the current period.
FALSE depreciation is a deferral expense it do not related t oa cash flow
Explanation:
A. The income statement is put together at a specific point in time (end of a business quarter, or business year) and so the sale could be in one period and the cash received in another period.
CORRECT income statement end at a certain date and include transaction under accrual accounting which doesn't relate to cash disbursements or collection
B. The income statement contains the set of expenses associated with the products or services sold during the current operating period, with those expenses not associated with current cash flow labeled as nonminuscash expense items
CORRECT It works with accrual accounting
D. Companies depreciate fixed assets (such as office furniture, equipment, machinery, and buildings) over an assigned time period, but the initial cash outlay for the fixed asset typically occurs at the time the asset is acquired by the firm.
CORRECT the cash disbursements occurs at time zero. Then, the accounting distributes this over several period to decrease the impact in the first period
Answer:
January Overheads are <u>under-applied</u> by $2,000.
Explanation:
When,
Actual overheads > Applied overheads we say overheads are under-applied.
Actual overheads < Applied overheads we say overheads are over-applied.
Where,
Applied overheads = Predetermined overhead rate × Actual Activity
Therefore,
Applied overheads (January) = 120% × $40,000
= $48,000
Actual overheads (January) = $50,000.
Conclusion
It can be seen that from the above : Actual overheads : $50,000 > Applied overhead : $48,000, therefore overheads were under-applied.
Amount of under-applied overheads = $50,000 - $48,000
= $2,000
Answer:
option (d) $1.40 taxable income rather than $1.00 tax-exempt income
Explanation:
The taxpayer would prefer option (d) $1.40 taxable income rather than $1.00 tax-exempt income
The above statement will be chosen because in this case the after tax income will be greater than the tax exempt according to the condition given in the question
Given:
Marginal Tax bracket = 25%
thus,
Taxable income = $1.40
Tax = $1.40 × 0.25 = $0.35
Therefore,
The net income = Taxable income - Tax = $1.40 - $0.35 = $1.05
and,
$1.05 > $1.00
