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3 years ago

Price controls on goods can be set by

2 answers:

4 0

The president is able to set price controls. When this is done however it sets an artificial ceiling on the price of goods. When the price set is too high it causes too many of the product to be produced because people can't afford to buy it. When the price being set it too low it causes shortages. in the market place. One example of this is when back in the 1970's the price of gasoline was set at too low of a price. Long lines formed a gas stations and only those who were patient enough to wait in line actually got the gas the needed.

Brilliant_brown [7]3 years ago

4 0

The answer is government. I just took the test.

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When a route in a transportation problem is unacceptable, the corresponding variable can be removed from the LP formulation. Tru

GenaCL600 [577]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

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2 years ago

Sally is in the new marketing department of a midsized lawn and garden company. She is working on the first marketing plan the f

Alisiya [41]

Answer:

Explanation:

D) identify and evaluate opportunities by conducting segmentation, targeting, and opositioning analysis.

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2 years ago

Presented below is information related to Bobby Engram Company.

Natasha_Volkova [10]

Answer:

A. $ 98,210

B1. Cost to retail percentage 60%

B2. Cost to retail percentage 65.73 %

B3. Cost to retail percentage 58 %

B4. Cost to retail percentage 63.33 %

Explanation:

A. Computation for the ending inventory at retail

Inventory at Retail

Beginning Inventory $ 100,000

Purchase ( Net ) $ 200,000

Net Markup $ 10345

Less Net Markdown ($26,135)

Less Sales Revenue ($ 186,000)

Ending Inventory $ 98,210

Therefore the ending inventory at retail will be $ 98,210

B1) Computation for a cost-to-retail percentage

Excluding both markups and markdowns.

Cost to Retail Percentage

Excluding both Markup and Markdown

Cost Retail

Beginning Inventory $ 58,000 $ 100,000

Purchase (Net) $ 122,000 $ 200,000

Total $ 180,000 $ 300,000

Cost to retail percentage = $180,000/$300,000 Cost to retail percentage = 60%

B2. Computation for a cost-to-retail percentage Excluding Markups but Including Markdown

Cost Retail

Beginning Inventory $ 58,000 $ 100,000

Purchase (Net) $ 122,000 $ 200,000

Less Mark down ($ 26,135)

Total $ 180,000 $273,865

Cost to retail percentage= $180,000 /$ 273,865*100

Cost to retail percentage= 65.73 %

B3. Computation for a cost-to-retail percentage Excluding Markdowns but including Markups

Cost Retail

Beginning Inventory $ 58,000 $ 100,000

Purchase Net $ 122,000 $ 200,000

Add Net Markups $ 10,345

Total $180,000 $ 310,345

Cost to retail percentage = $180,000 / $ 310,345*100

Cost to retail percentage = 58 %

B4. Computation for a cost-to-retail percentage Including both Markups and Markdown

Cost Retail

Beginning Inventory $58,000 $100,000

Purchase Net $ 122,000 $ 200,000

Net Markups $ 10,345

Less Net Mardown ($26,135)

Total $ 180,000 $ 284,210

Cost to retail percentage = $ 180,000/ $ 284,210 × 100

Cost to retail percentage = 63.33 %

Therefore the cost-to-retail percentage are:

B1. Cost to retail percentage 60%

B2. Cost to retail percentage 65.73 %

B3. Cost to retail percentage 58 %

B4. Cost to retail percentage 63.33 %

8 0

2 years ago

Assuming a binding price floor, the more inelastic the supply and the demand curves are, the:1'smaller the shortage a price floo

KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Option "3" is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Inelastic demand curve depict when there's no evident increase in demand due to an increase in price.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Your investment portfolio consists of $15 comma 000 invested in only one stocklong dashAmazon. Suppose the risk-free rate is 5

Kay [80]

Answer:

The CAPM hypothesis states that the effective market is utilized place in the market and has the maximum eminent expected return of any assortment for a given randomness and the smallest variability for a assumed expected return. By allotment utilized place in the market assortment, you can achieve a standard return,

Thus,

Expected Rate of Return = [Risk free Rate + Beta × (Market Risk - Risk free Rate)]

Beta = [Expected Rate of Return – Risk Free Rate] / [Market Risk - Risk free Rate]

Beta = [12% - 5%] / [10% -5%]

Beta = 7/5

Beta =1.4

The final possible instability while taking the same estimated rate of return as Amazon is $21,000 ($15,000 × 1.4) which indicate that it borrows $6,000 ($21,000 - $15,000). Now the -$6,000 is specified as strength benefit. So the volatility of the asset is,

Volatility = [Volatility of Asset x Beta]

Volatility = [18% × 1.4]

Volatility = 0.252 or 25.20%

Therefore the volatility is less than the volatility of Amazon.

The market share has a instability of "n". The corresponding instability of Amazon will be 2.22 (40%/18%). So the assortment with the most notable predictable give back that has a faint variability from Amazon is $33,333.33 ($15,000x 2.22) which will be the market assortment and it also uses $18,333.33 ($33,333.33 - $15,000). Here the -$18,333.33 is specified as strength asset. So the return is,

Expected Return = [Risk free Rate + Beta × (Market Risk – Risk free Rate)]

Expected Return = [5%+ 122 × (10% - 5%)]

Expected Return = [5%+ 122 × 5%]

Expected Return = [0.05+0.111111]

Expected Return = 0.161111 or1 6.11%

Therefore the volatility is higher than the expected return of Amazon.

8 0

3 years ago