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Ivan
3 years ago
6

BlendedBlended Corporation uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible receivables. At the beginning of the​ year, Al

lowance for Bad Debts had a credit balance of $ 1 comma 300$1,300. During the year BlendedBlended wrote off uncollectible receivables of $ 1 comma 800$1,800. BlendedBlended recorded Bad Debts Expense of $ 2 comma 800$2,800. What is Blended'sBlended's ​year-end balance in Allowance for Bad​ Debts?
Business
1 answer:
ehidna [41]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The answer is: $2,300

Explanation:

To determine the ending balance of the account Allowance for Bad Debts of Blended Corporation, we can use the following formula:

ending balance = beginning balance - amount wrote off + recorded bad debts

ending balance = $1,300 - $1,800 + $2,800 =$2,300

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McDonalds reported current year pretax book income of $365,000. Included in the computation were favorable temporary differences
iren2701 [21]

Answer:

the current income tax expense or benefit is $103,583

Explanation:

The computation of the current income tax expense or benefit is shown below:

Current income tax expense is

= (pre - tax book income - favourable temporary difference + unfavorable temporary difference + unfavourable permanent difference) × tax rate

= ($365,000 - $13,750 + $97,000 + $45,000) × 21%

= $493,250 × 21%

= $103,583

We assumed the tax rate be 21%

hence, the  current income tax expense or benefit is $103,583

5 0
3 years ago
Justin Slugger is about to sign a contract with the Columbus Homers. The professional baseball team has given him two options of
Andrej [43]

Answer:

Option 1 Present value = $18,181,818.18

Option2 Present value = $20,916,718.64

Option 2 which is an annuity for 15 years is a better option as it has a higher present value than option 1.

Explanation:

To decide the better option, we need to calculate the present value of option 1 which is the lumpsum and the present value of option 2 which is an annuity and compare these values.

The present value of option 1 can be calculated as follows,

Option 1 Present value = Future value / (1 + r)^t

Where,

  • r is the rate of return of interest or discount rate
  • t is the time in years

Option 1 Present value = 20,000,000 / (1+0.1)^1

Option 1 Present value = $18,181,818.18

The present value of option 2 can be calculate using the formula of present value of annuity due as the payments will be made at the start of the period. The formula for present value of annuity due is attached.

Option2 Present value = 2,500,000 + 2,500,000 * [(1 - (1+0.1)^-14) / 0.1]

Option2 Present value = $20,916,718.64

Option 2 which is an annuity for 15 years is a better option as it has a higher present value than option 1.

7 0
3 years ago
blake wanted to offer high-quality meals in his restaurant. his motto was "the best darn meat and potatoes for miles around." th
Natali5045456 [20]

Blake wanted to offer high-quality meals in his restaurant. His motto was "the best darn meat and potatoes for miles around." the locals agreed that the food was good.

They also agreed that if you decided to eat there, be prepared to wait. food preparation and service were slow. although blake’s motto stated the business’s competitive advantage, your accurate advice to blake would be the winning competitive advantage is one that addresses quality and service.

A competitive advantage is what sets a company apart from its competitors, in the eyes of its consumers. These advantages allow a company to achieve and maintain superior margins, a better growth profile, or greater loyalty among current customers. A competitive advantage is often referred to as a “protective moat.”

There are three fundamental strategy options open to firms for attaining a competitive edge, according to Porter's Generic Strategies model. Cost leadership, differentiation, and focus are these.

Learn more about competitive here:

brainly.com/question/15143240

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5 0
2 years ago
Lightning Electronics is a midsize manufacturer of lithium batteries. The company’s payroll records for the November 1–14 pay pe
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

Journal entries for the following will be shown below:

Explanation:

1.

Journal entries for the wages expense is as follows:

Wages expense A/c.........................Dr     $50,000

        Income Tax Payable A/c................Cr   $7,000

        FICA taxes payable A/c...................Cr   $2,625

        Cash A/c...............................................Cr   $40,375

Working Note:

Cash = Wage expense - Income tax payable - FICA taxes payable

= $50,000 - $7,000 - $2,625

= $40,375

2.

Journal entry for the payroll expenses is as follows:

Payroll tax expense A/c............................Dr    $2,875

       FICA taxes payable A/c............................Cr   $2,625

       Unemployment taxes payable A/c.........Cr   $250

4 0
3 years ago
Privack Corporation has a standard cost system in which it applies overhead to products based on the standard direct labor-hours
MAXImum [283]

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

A. Predetermined overhead

First, we all calculate total overhead cost at the denominator level

Total overhead cost = total fixed overhead + total variable overhead

= $250,000 + (40,000 × $2)

= $250,000 + $80,000

= $330,000

Predetermined overhead rate = Total overhead cost at the denominator level / Budgeted standard direct labor hour

= $330,000 / 40,000

= $8.25

B. Overhead applied

= Standard direct labor hour allowed for actual output × Predetermined overhead rate

= 38,000 × $8.25

= $313,500

3 0
4 years ago
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