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miv72 [106K]
3 years ago
14

You are a speculator who sells a call option on Swiss francs for a premium of $.06, with an exercise price of $.64. The option w

ill not be exercised until the expiration date, if at all. If the spot rate of the Swiss franc is $.69 on the expiration date, your net profit per unit is:
a.-$.02.
b.-$.01.
c. $.01
d. $.02
e.None of the above.
I know the answer is C(.01) but don't know how. please list formula and work.
Business
1 answer:
Ksivusya [100]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

c. $.01

Explanation:

The computation of the net profit per unit is shown below:

= Exercise price + Premium - Spot rate on the expiration date

= $0.64 + $0.06 - $0.69

= $0.01

To find out the net profit per unit we added the premium and deducted the spot rate on the expiration date to the exercise price so that the true value per unit can come.

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Whatever, Inc., has a bond outstanding with a coupon rate of 5.73 percent and semiannual payments. The yield to maturity is 6.7
coldgirl [10]

Answer:

The market price if the bond has a par value of $1,000 is $887.02 . The right answer is c.

Explanation:

In order to calculate the market price if the bond has a par value of $1,000, we need first to make the following calculations according to given data:

Coupon Rate = 5.73/2 = 2.865%

Interest = 1000 * 2.865% = $ 28.65

YTM = 6.7/2 = 3.35%

Time = 23*2 = 46 periods

Therefore, the market price would be calculated using the following formula:

Price of Bond = Interest * PVIFA(3.35%,46) + Par Value * PVIF(3.35%,46)

= $28.65 * 23.2942 + 1000 * 0.2196

= $667.38 + $219.64

Hence, Price of Bond = $887.02

The market price if the bond has a par value of $1,000 is $887.02

3 0
4 years ago
Why does increase interest rates cause capital inflow?
Arlecino [84]
Because a lower interest rate means a lower cost of borrowing money. However policies cannot be applied to today's world, because policies never considered how to increase investment spending when there is so much debt on the consumer side and government side.
4 0
3 years ago
... you saved 10% of your
Burka [1]

Dose it say how much you will make

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The owner of a bicycle repair shop forecasts revenues of $160,000 a year. Variable costs will be $50,000, and rental costs for t
andre [41]

Answer:

A. $66,000  

B. $66,000  

C. $66,000  

Explanation:

Dollars in dollars out can be easily understood by just deducting cash expenses from the revenue received from cash sales. we can not deduct depreciation expense as it is a non-cash item.

DATA

Revenue = 160,000

Variable cost = 50,000

Rental cost = 30,000

Depreciation = 10,000

Profit before tax = 70,000

Tax (70,000 x 20%) = 14,000

Net Income = 56,000

a) Dollars in minus dollars out

Dollars in minus dollars out  = Revenue - rental costs - variable costs - taxes Dollars in minus dollars out = $160,000 - $30,000 - $50,000 - $14,000

Dollars in minus dollars out  = $66,000  

b) Adjusted accounting profits

Operating cash flow = Net income + depreciation

Operating cash flow = $56,000 + $10,000

Operating cash flow = $66,000

c) Add back depreciation tax shield

Operating cash flow = [(Revenue - rental costs - variable costs) × (1 - 0.2)] + (depreciation × 0.2)]

Operating cash flow = ($160,000 - $30000 - $50,000)*0.8 + $10,000*0.2 Operating cash flow = $66,000

3 0
3 years ago
An uncle of yours who is about to retire wants to sell some of his stock and buy an annuity that will provide him with income of
lions [1.4K]

Answer:

It should cost $605,183.13 today.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Cash flow= $50,000

Number of years= 30

Interest rate= 7.25%

To calculate the present value, first, we need to calculate the final value using the following formula:

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= cash flow

FV= {50,000*[(1.0725^30)-1]} / 0.0725

FV= $4,940,897.47

Now, we can calculate the present value:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

PV= 4,940,897.47/ (1.0725^20)

PV= $605,183.13

8 0
3 years ago
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