Answer:
20.1%
Explanation:
In capital asset prcing model (CAPM), cost of equity (or cost of retained earnings in this context) is calculated as below:
<em>Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return + beta x (market index return - risk-free rate of return)</em>
Please note that <em>(market index return - risk-free rate of return)</em> is equal to <em>market risk premium</em>
Putting all the number together, we have:
Cost of equity/retained earnings = 2.5% + 2.2 x 8% = 20.1%
<em>Note: The dividend growth rate, tax rate & stock standard deviation is not relevant in answering the question.</em>
Answer:
The answer is B.
Explanation:
Capital is what is used to start a business. It is what the owner's contribution in the business. In advanced class, it is called stock or equity. Capital is usually from the owner's savings. But if this money is borrowed either from an individual or a bank, the person is a borrower while the other party is the lender.
Option A is incorrect because money raised from someone makes the person borrowing a borrower and not a saver.
Option C and D are incorrect because the items needed for the business are not consumables, they are needed for the smooth running of the business, hence they are not consumption.
Answer:
C. straight back chairs will be overcosted
Explanation:
Miller Company makes two types of chairs. One of the chairs is a rocking chair. The other is a straight-back chair. Both chairs are made by hand. Miller Company uses a company-wide overhead rate that is based on direct labor hours to assign overhead costs to the two products. If Miller automates the production of straight-back chairs and continues to use direct labor hours as a company-wide allocation basis:
A. rocking chairs will be undercosted
B. There should be no impact on unit cost
C. straight back chairs will be overcosted
D. rocking chairs will be overcosted.
EXPLANATION
If Miller automates the production of straight-back chairs and continues to use direct labor hours as a company-wide allocation basis then the straight back chairs will be overcosted<u> because the automation process directly implies that it no longer drives labor hours since it is no longer made by hand.</u>
Automated processes should use machine hours rather than labor hours, for the allocation of its overhead.
Answer:
Explicit costs - $51,000
Explicit costs are those for which a person incurs in actual spending of money. In this case, Christine had to pay $15,000 in wages, and $36,000 in rent ($3,000 x 12). These are expenses that she had to pay money for, and that had to be accounted for in the accounting books, and in the financial statements. These are in other words, explicit costs.
Implicit costs - $40,000
Implicit costs are simply the opportunity costs. An opportunity cost is the cost of the next more valuable alternative when faced with two or more options. No money is paid for this costs. The implicit costs for Christine were the $40,000 that she not receive as wages if she had continued working at a real state firm.
Answer:
c) $5.68
Explanation:
The worth of this stock today is the present value of the future dividends which is computed by discounting future dividends as well as the terminal value using the required rate of return of 14.5% as the appropriate discount rate as shown thus:
Year 1 dividend=$.65
Year 2 dividend=$0.70
Year 3 dividend=$0.75
terminal value of dividends=Year 3 dividend*(1+g)/Ke-g
g=dividend terminal growth rate=2%
Ke=required rate of return=14.5%
terminal value of dividends=$0.75*(1+2%)/(14.5%-2%)=$ 6.12
Share price=$.65/(1+14.5%)^1+$.70/(1+14.5%)^2+$.75/(1+14.5%)^3+$6.12/(1+14.5%)^3
share price=$5.68
