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Tems11 [23]
3 years ago
12

Scenario 15-8 Mega Media Cable TV is able to purchase an exclusive right to sell a premium sports channel in its market area. Le

t's assume that Mega Media pays $100,000 a year for the exclusive marketing rights to the sports channel. Since Mega Media has already installed cable to all of the homes in its market area, the marginal cost of delivering the sports channel to subscribers is zero. The manager of Mega Media needs to know what price to charge for the sports channel service to maximize her profit. Before setting price, she hires an economist to estimate demand for the sports channel. The economist discovers that there are two types of subscribers who value premium sporting channels. First are the 3,000 die-hard sports fans who will pay as much as $150 a year for the new channel. Second, the premium sports channel will appeal to 20,000 occasional sports viewers who will pay as much as $25 a year for a subscription to it. Refer to Scenario 15-8. How much profit will Mega Media Cable TV earn if it sets the price at $25
Business
1 answer:
iren [92.7K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Net profit= 475000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Scenario 15-8 Mega Media Cable TV can purchase an exclusive right to sell a premium sports channel in its market area.

Fix cost= $100,000

Price= $25

Occasional sports viewers= 20000

Hardcore sport viewers= 3000

Revenues= 23000*25= $575000

Fix cost= (100000)

Net profit= 475000

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pogonyaev

Answer:

Answer is explained in the explanation section below.

Explanation:

It's necessary to remember that the value of fixed-rate bonds is inversely proportional to the level of interest rates. The value of the bond decreases as interest rates rise; moreover, the value of the bond rises as interest rates fall. A Bond with a lower coupon sells for less than its face value. When the going rate of interest is higher than the coupon rate, this condition arises. The value of the asset would increase over time. A higher coupon bond is one that sells for a higher price than its face value. When the going rate of interest is lower than the coupon rate, this condition arises. Its value will gradually decrease until it reaches its maturity value. A par value bond that sells at par, with a coupon rate equal to the current interest rate. The coupon is usually set at the going market rate on the day the bond is sold, so it sells at par at first.

Calculations:

C = Coupon Payments = $60 (Par Value x Coupon Rate)

n = number of years = 10

i = market rate or required yield = 7% = 0.007

K = number of coupon payments in 1 year = 1

P = value at maturity or par value = 1000

Present value of ordinary annuity formula:

Bond Price = C/k * [\frac{1 - \frac{1}{(1 + \frac{i}{k})^{nk}  } }{\frac{i}{k} } ] + \frac{P}{(1 + \frac{i}{k})^{nk}  }

Just plug in the values and you will get:

Bond Price = 60 x 7.02 + 508.35

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Similarly,

Data:

C = Coupon Payments = $60 (Par Value x Coupon Rate)

n = number of years = 10

i = market rate or required yield = 7% = 0.007

K = number of coupon payments in 1 year = 2

P = value at maturity or par value = 1000

Present value of ordinary annuity formula:  

Bond Price = C/k * [\frac{1 - \frac{1}{(1 + \frac{i}{k})^{nk}  } }{\frac{i}{k} } ] + \frac{P}{(1 + \frac{i}{k})^{nk}  }

Just plug in the values and you will get:  

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8 0
3 years ago
The primary benefit of a MINIMAX objective function is
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Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": it yields a larger variety of solutions than generally available using an LP method.

Explanation:

In Goal Programming (GP), the MINIMAX objective aims to minimize the maximum deviation from any type of objective. This approach carries a larger number of solutions compared to the Linear Programming (LP) method which mainly focuses on assigning more weight to each goal in the objective function.

4 0
3 years ago
​Lisa's credit card balance this month is​ $969.16. Her APR​ (annual percentage​ rate) is 15.24​ %. The minimum payment due is​
8090 [49]

Answer:

It will take 50 months to complete the payment on his entire balance

Explanation:

We have to solve for n in an annuity:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\  

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time n

rate (0.1524 / 12 months per year) 0.00127

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Now, we use logarithmics properties to get the answer:

[tex]-n= \frac{log0.93845834}{log(1+0.00127)  

n = 50.044991

8 0
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Gwar [14]

Answer:

The correct answer is same as the profits of a purely competitive firm.

Explanation:

A monopolistic market is characterized by a large number of sellers producing differentiated products which are close substitutes. This market has a relatively easier entry as compared to a monopoly market.  

In the long-run when a monopolistic firm will be earning a positive profit. It will attract other firms to join the market. As new firms enter the market, the market supply will increase. A rightward shift in the market supply curve will cause the price level to decline. This will continue till all the profits decline to zero.

So, similar to a purely competitive firm, a monopolistic firm also earn zero economic profit in the long run.

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3 years ago
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