Answer:
The entry would be:
Dr Investment in Subsidiary XX
Cr Retained Earnings XX
Explanation:
The IFRS says that the invesments in associates must be accounted for in accordance to equity method. Which says the net difference of profit after tax and dividends received would will go to investment in associate account and the dividend received would go to the retained earnings because it has been cashed.
Answer:
C. Many decisions are made on the margin
Explanation:
Opportunity cost refers to the benefits foregone of a non chosen alternative when another alternative is chosen.
In the given case, time is a scarce resource and limited. Rajiv has to practice for triathlon which comprises of 3 events. To win the triathlon, he needs to perform well collectively.
If he undertakes to swim more, the time available for other 2 activities need to be sacrificed i.e running and biking. Rajiv has planned to sacrifice biking marginally in the favor of swimming. The lesser an activity is sacrificed, the lower would be it's opportunity cost.
Whereas his wife's approach in short can be called "all or nothing" approach which relates to completely withdrawing from other activities and accepting one activity fully.
Rajiv is trying to make little changes instead of fully giving up on one activity and totally taking up another. This involves lesser cost in the form of opportunity cost, at the same time help him prepare for all three activities efficiently.
The missing word in the blank is :
small
hence the completed paragraph is:
The coach is weighing a slightly increased risk of losing against a slightly decreased risk of injury to the star quarterback. this weighing of trade-offs is an example of marginal thinking, because the star quarterback was in for most of the game, and the coach's decision concerns <u><em>small</em></u> shifts in probabilities with the game nearly over.
Answer:
Total present value= $4,369.14
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Year Cash Flow
1 $1,130
2 $1,000
3 $1,510
4 $1,870
Discount rate= 9%
<u>To calculate the present value, we need to use the following formula on each cash flow:</u>
PV= Cf/(1+i)^n
PV1= 1,130/1.09= 1,036.70
PV2= 1,000/1.09^2= 841.68
PV3= 1,510/1.09^3= 1,166
PV4= 1,870/1.09^4= 1,324.76
Total present value= $4,369.14