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nikklg [1K]
3 years ago
5

The Woods Co. and the Speith Co. have both announced IPOs at $52 per share. One of these is undervalued by $11, and the other is

overvalued by $5, but you have no way of knowing which is which. You plan to buy 1,900 shares of each issue. If an issue is underpriced, it will be rationed, and only half your order will be filled. a. If you could get 1,900 shares in Woods and 1,900 shares in Speith, what would your profit be
Business
1 answer:
Sergio039 [100]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$11,400

Explanation:

Data provided as per the question is below:-

Shares = 1,900

Undervalued amount = $11

Overvalued amount= $5

The computation of profit is shown below:-

Profit = Shares × Undervalue amount - Shares × Overvalued amount

= 1,900 × $11 - 1,900 × $5

= $20,900 - $9,500

= $11,400

Therefore for computing the profit we simply applied the above formula.

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1 - Describe two justifications for the need for professional financial planning advice
icang [17]

Answer:

Financial planning is a step-by-step approach to meet one's life goals. A financial plan acts as a guide as you go through life's journey. Essentially, it helps you be in control of your income, expenses and investments such that you can manage your money and achieve your goals.

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
The following unadjusted trial balance contains the accounts and balances of Dylan Delivery Company as of December 31, 2010, its
REY [17]

Answer:

Dylan Delivery Company

1. 10-Column Worksheet (see attachment)

2. Closing Journal Entries at December 31, 2010:

Date  Description                        Debit         Credit  

Depreciation expense - Truck    80,000  

Salaries Expense                         111,000  

Office supplies expense             18,000  

Repairs expense- trucks             15,000

Income Summary                                          224,000

To close expenses to the Income Summary.

Date  Description                        Debit         Credit

Income Summary                      263,000

Delivery fees                                                263,000

To close revenue to the Income Summary.

Date  Description                       Debit         Credit

Net Income                                39,000

Retained Earnings                                        39,000

To close the net income to retained earnings.

2b) Capital to be reported on balance sheet as at December 31, 2010:

S. Dylan Capital                 $307,000

Retained Earnings                39,000

S. Dylan withdrawals           (34,000)

Net Capital                        $312,000

Explanation:

a) A 10-column worksheet is a tool used by accountants to close the temporary accounts, after necessary adjustments, and then extract a balance sheet.  It comprises two columns (debit and credit) for each of the following: Unadjusted Trial Balance, Adjusting Entries, Adjusted Trial Balance, Income Statement, and Balance Sheet.

b) A closing entry is a journal entry that is made at the end of an accounting period to transfer balances from a temporary account to a permanent account.  The four basic steps in the closing process are: Closing the revenue accounts—transferring the credit balances in the revenue accounts to a clearing account called Income Summary. Closing the expense accounts—transferring the debit balances in the expense accounts to a clearing account called Income Summary.  Extracting a balance between the revenue accounts and the expense accounts, called the net income or loss.  Closing the net income or loss to the Retained Earnings.

Download xlsx
5 0
3 years ago
Ganado and Equity Risk Premiums. Maria​ Gonzalez, Ganado's Chief Financial​ Officer, estimates the​ risk-free rate to be 3.50 %​
Elza [17]

Answer:

WACC (CAPM) 5.2%

WACC (ICAPM) 5.03%

Explanation:

The weighted average cost of capital is

Ke * E/ E+D + Kd * (1 -t) D / E+D

Ke = Rf + (Rm - Rf) * \beta

Ke (CAPM) = 3.50% + (8% - 3.50%) * 1.12

Ke (CAPM) = 7.532%

Kd (CAPM) = Kd (1-t)

Kd (CAPM) = 7.60 (1-39%)

Kd (CAPM) = 4.636%

WACC (ICAPM) : 7.532 * 20% + 4.636 * 80%

WACC (CAPM) = 5.2164%

Ke (ICAPM) = 3.50% + (8% - 3.50%) * 0.86

Ke (ICAPM) = 6.596%

Kd (ICAPM) = Kd (1-t)

Kd (ICAPM) = 7.60 (1-39%)

Kd (ICAPM) = 4.636%

WACC (ICAPM) : 6.596 * 20% + 4.636 * 80%

WACC (CAPM) = 5.03%

7 0
3 years ago
Preferred stock is a hybrid—a cross between a common stock and a bond—in the sense that it pays dividends that normally increase
shtirl [24]

Answer:

The correct answer is B. False.

Explanation:

Preferred shares are called because they have priority over common shares in the payment of dividends or upon settlement, although they are subordinated to the payment of bonds or obligations. Their conditions are negotiated directly between the issuing entity -bank- and the investor or shareholder. They are a high financial risk asset that can give high bank interest or large losses.

3 0
3 years ago
Select the correct answer.
pshichka [43]

Answer:

Choice d is my answer

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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