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3 years ago

Convert 350,200 millimeters to kilometers

Mathematics

1 answer:

puteri [66]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

0.352

Step-by-step explanation:

1 millimeter is 1/1000th of a meter, and 1 meter is 1/1000th of a kilometer. Thus, we can divide by 1000 to get to meters (350.2) and another thousand to get to kilometers (0.352)

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store A offers successive discounts of 10% one week and 20% the second week. store B offers a one-time discount of 25% the secon

11111nata11111 [884]

The store which offers the greater discount is store B.

<h3>Discount</h3>

Store A:

First week = 10%

= 10/100

= 0.1

Second week = 20%

= 20/100

= 0.2

Total discount = (0.1 + 0.2) / 2

= 0.15

Store B:

25%

= 25/100

= 0.25

Therefore, the store which offers the greater discount is store B.

Learn more about discount:

brainly.com/question/7459025

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1 year ago

A car is driving at 40 kilometers per hour. How far, in meters, does it travel in 2 seconds?

Troyanec [42]

Answer:

i think its 22.22 thats my guess

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Find the mean, variance &a standard deviation of the binomial distribution with the given values of n and p.

MrMuchimi

A random variable following a binomial distribution over $n$ trials with success probability $p$ has PMF

$f_X(x)=\dbinom nxp^x(1-p)^{n-x}$

Because it's a proper probability distribution, you know that the sum of all the probabilities over the distribution's support must be 1, i.e.

$\displaystyle\sum_xf_X(x)=\sum_{x=0}^n\binom nxp^x(1-p)^{n-x}=1$

The mean is given by the expected value of the distribution,

$\mathbb E(X)=\displaystyle\sum_xf_X(x)=\sum_{x=0}^nx\binom nxp^x(1-p)^{n-x}$
$\mathbb E(X)=\displaystyle\sum_{x=1}^nx\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}p^x(1-p)^{n-x}$
$\mathbb E(X)=\displaystyle\sum_{x=1}^n\frac{n!}{(x-1)!(n-x)!}p^x(1-p)^{n-x}$
$\mathbb E(X)=\displaystyle np\sum_{x=1}^n\frac{(n-1)!}{(x-1)!((n-1)-(x-1))!}p^{x-1}(1-p)^{(n-1)-(x-1)}$
$\mathbb E(X)=\displaystyle np\sum_{x=0}^n\frac{(n-1)!}{x!((n-1)-x)!}p^x(1-p)^{(n-1)-x}$
$\mathbb E(X)=\displaystyle np\sum_{x=0}^n\binom{n-1}xp^x(1-p)^{(n-1)-x}$
$\mathbb E(X)=\displaystyle np\sum_{x=0}^{n-1}\binom{n-1}xp^x(1-p)^{(n-1)-x}$

The remaining sum has a summand which is the PMF of yet another binomial distribution with $n-1$ trials and the same success probability, so the sum is 1 and you're left with

$\mathbb E(x)=np=126\times0.27=34.02$

You can similarly derive the variance by computing $\mathbb V(X)=\mathbb E(X^2)-\mathbb E(X)^2$ , but I'll leave that as an exercise for you. You would find that $\mathbb V(X)=np(1-p)$ , so the variance here would be

$\mathbb V(X)=125\times0.27\times0.73=24.8346$

The standard deviation is just the square root of the variance, which is

$\sqrt{\mathbb V(X)}=\sqrt{24.3846}\approx4.9834$

7 0

3 years ago

BRAINLIST AND 30 POINTS

svetlana [45]

Answer:

1/16

Step-by-step explanation:

So if you want to divide an amount equally, you divide the numbers. In this scenario, what you would do is this:

1/2 needs to be split 8 times

(1/2)/8

If you have something like this where the numerator is a fraction, then you multiply 2x8. that gives you 16, so now you add the 1 on top and you get 1/16.

6 0

2 years ago

Really confused and am on final attempt!

Flura [38]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the legs of a 30-60-90 triangle are 1 and $\sqrt{3}$ , while the hypotenuse is 2.

the ratio of the legs is therefore 1 : $\sqrt{3}$ → C

3 0

3 years ago