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Finger [1]
3 years ago
7

Convert 350,200 millimeters to kilometers

Mathematics
1 answer:
puteri [66]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

0.352

Step-by-step explanation:

1 millimeter is 1/1000th of a meter, and 1 meter is 1/1000th of a kilometer. Thus, we can divide by 1000 to get to meters (350.2) and another thousand to get to kilometers (0.352)

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Pete is a politician. He claims that 32% of the households in his district have total household incomes below the poverty level.
victus00 [196]

Answer:

z=\frac{0.3867 -0.32}{\sqrt{\frac{0.32(1-0.32)}{225}}}=2.145  

For a bilateral test the p value would be:  

p_v =2*P(z>2.145)=0.0320  

Step-by-step explanation:

Information given

n=225 represent the sample selected

X=87 represent the households with incomes below the poverty level

\hat p=\frac{87}{225}=0.3867 estimated proportion of households with incomes below the poverty level

p_o=0.32 is the value that we want to test

z would represent the statistic

p_v represent the p value

System of hypothesis

We want to check if the true proportion is equal to 0.32 or not.:  

Null hypothesis:p=0.32  

Alternative hypothesis:p \neq 0.32  

The statistic is given bY:

z=\frac{\hat p -p_o}{\sqrt{\frac{p_o (1-p_o)}{n}}} (1)  

Replacing we got:

z=\frac{0.3867 -0.32}{\sqrt{\frac{0.32(1-0.32)}{225}}}=2.145  

For a bilateral test the p value would be:  

p_v =2*P(z>2.145)=0.0320  

4 0
3 years ago
The probability of winning a certain lottery is 1/77076 for people who play 908 times find the mean number of wins
Alex73 [517]

The mean is 0.0118 approximately. So option C is correct

<h3><u>Solution:</u></h3>

Given that , The probability of winning a certain lottery is \frac{1}{77076} for people who play 908 times

We have to find the mean number of wins

\text { The probability of winning a lottery }=\frac{1}{77076}

Assume that a procedure yields a binomial distribution with a trial repeated n times.

Use the binomial probability formula to find the probability of x successes given the probability p of success on a single trial.

n=908, \text { probability } \mathrm{p}=\frac{1}{77076}

\text { Then, binomial mean }=n \times p

\begin{array}{l}{\mu=908 \times \frac{1}{77076}} \\\\ {\mu=\frac{908}{77076}} \\\\ {\mu=0.01178}\end{array}

Hence, the mean is 0.0118 approximately. So option C is correct.

4 0
3 years ago
HELP! WILL GIVE BRAINLEST
trasher [3.6K]

Answer:

Option C: 41

Step-by-step explanation:

<ABD+<CBD=90

<ABD=8x+1

<CBD=6x+5

(8x+1)+(6x+5)=90

Combine like terms

(8x+6x)+(1+5)=90

14x+6=90

14x=90-6

14x=84

divide both sides by 14

x=6

Now we plug that value into <DBC = 6x+5

6(6)+5=

36+5

41

7 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
GIVING BRAINLIEST PLEASE HELP!!
barxatty [35]

Answer:

d.     hope I get it right I never got brainliest

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the value of x
Dmitriy789 [7]

x=10 because you add the variables to get 5x and you do 46-6 to get 40. Then you subtract 40 from 90 to get 50 and divide by 5 to get 10 as ur answer.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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