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Illusion [34]
3 years ago
8

Even though most corporate bonds in the United States make coupon payments semiannually, bonds issued elsewhere often have annua

l coupon payments. Suppose a German company issues a bond with a par value of €1,000, 15 years to maturity, and a coupon rate of 6.5 percent paid annually. If the yield to maturity is 7.6 percent, what is the current price of the bond?

Business
1 answer:
Fittoniya [83]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

€903.50

Explanation:

We use the present value formula to determine the current price of the bond which is shown in the attachment below:

Given that,  

Future value = €1,000

Rate of interest = 7.6%

NPER = 15 years

PMT = €1,000 × 6.5% = €65

The formula is shown below:

= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)

So, after solving this, the current price of the bond is €903.50

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soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

D. They might order a greater number of gallons with jugs or with barrels, depending on various factors like the demand rate, ordering cost, and holding cost.

Explanation:

Let us assume the following things  

D be the demand rate

P be the Unit cost

H be the holding cost per gallon per months

S be the  ordering cost

Now the economic order quantity is  

EOQ units = Q = √(2DS ÷ (H))

Therefore, the order quantity would be based upon demand rate, ordering cost and holding cost.

So the last option is correct

3 0
3 years ago
Firm A employs a high degree of operating leverage; Firm B takes a more conservative approach. Which of the following comparativ
Aneli [31]

Answer:

Statement B is correct.

Explanation:

High Operating Leverage represents higher fixed cost in comparison to variable cost, and thus that means the company will get its break even earlier or we can say with low units, but after break even profits will be higher.

As in the given case Firm A has higher Operating Leverage than Firm B, thus Firm A has lower Break even point but eventually its profit after reaching break even will grow higher.

Thus, Statement B is correct

4 0
3 years ago
Assume Zap industries reported the following adjusted account balances at year-end. 2019 2018 Accounts Receivable $ 1,690,200 $
Scrat [10]

Answer:

amount of Bad Debt Expense for 2019 = $92,000

Explanation:

A bad debt expense is a uncollectible receivable amount incurred on a credit sale to a customer, who is no longer able to pay the debt, due to bankruptcy or other financial problems. Companies make provision for these kind of credit losses in the allowance for doubtful accounts, and hence records the amount used from the allowance for doubtful accounts as the bad debt expense.

In our example, the allowance for doubtful account for 2019 is $92,000, hence since it was used to settle part of the credit losses, this becomes the bad debt expense.

3 0
3 years ago
After+a+student+synthesized+an+organic+compound,+she+calculated+her+reaction+yield+to+be+101%. +which+of+the+following+is+not+a+
torisob [31]

Gurl I am new here too so anything that you learned plz share I am in imitate help

7 0
2 years ago
A company has an overhead application rate of 124% of direct labor costs. How much overhead would be allocated to a job if it re
Gennadij [26K]

Answer:

$29,760

Explanation:

Overhead application rate = 124% of direct labor cost

The required total labor costing = $24,000

Total overhead applied = Overhead application rate *  $24,000

Total overhead applied = 124% * $24000

Total overhead applied = $29,760

6 0
3 years ago
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