Answer: SEE EXPLANATION
Explanation:
Given the following ;
Values depending on Success
$150M, $135M, $95M, $80M
Risk free rate = 5% = 0.05
Pervebtage to be lost in case of bankruptcy = 25% = 0.25
A.) 0.25 × [( 150 + 135 + 95 + 80) ÷ 1.05] = $109.52 million
Assume a zero-coupon debt with a $100million face value
B.) 0.25 × [( 100 + 100 + (95×0.75) + (80×0.75)) ÷ 1.05] = $78.87 million
C.) Yield to maturity (YTM)
(100M÷78.87M) - 1
1.2679 - 1 = 0.2679 = 26.79%
Expected return = 5%
D.) Equity value
0.25 × [( 150 + 135 + (95×0.75) + (80×0.75)) ÷ 1.05] = $99.11 million
E.) share if no debt is issued
109.52 ÷ 10 = 10.95 per share
F.) Share price if debt of $100M is issued
99.11 ÷ 10 = 9.91 per share
The price differs because bankruptcy cost will Lower the share price.
The closest answer that i can think of is categorized by consumer. By consumer, we are saying that you have to categorize them based on what they like meaning based on what they like at their age. For example, if you are going to market a pizza store to them, one of the best ways to do that is to position your pizza store as a place for friends to hang out because teenagers, at that age, love to hang out with friends and to be cool. So you have to categorize a teenage market by their interests when they are at that certain adolescent age
Answer:
Vo = <u>C1 </u> + <u>C2 + V2</u>
1 + k (1 + K)2
Vo = <u>$129,600 </u> + <u>$129,600 + $3,200,000</u>
1 + 0.14 (1 + 0.14)2
Vo = $113,684.21 + $2,562,019.08
Vo = $2,675,703.29
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
The current value of the business equals cashflow in year 1 divided by 1 + K plus the aggregate of cashflow and sales value in year 2 divided by 1 + k raised to power 2.
