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spayn [35]
3 years ago
8

All of the following statements regarding the double-entry system are true except:__________. 1. both sides of the accounting eq

uation must be affected when recording a transaction using the double-entry system. 2. the double-entry system provides a logical method for recording transactions. 3. when using the double-entry system, the sum of all debits to the accounts must equal the sum of all credits. 4. a two-sided effect of each transaction is recorded in appropriate accounts when using the double-entry system.
Business
1 answer:
Gennadij [26K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: both sides of the accounting equation must be affected when recording a transaction using the double-entry system

Explanation:

The double entry principle states that for every financial transaction that takes place, there will be an opposite and equal effects in two different accounts at least. It simply implies that there for every transactions that happens, there are two entries which are the credit entry and the debit entry.

In a double entry principle, the addition of all the debits to the accounts must be thesame as the addition of all credits.

Option A which states that both sides of the accounting equation must be affected when recording a transaction using the double-entry system isn't correct. Both side of the accounting equation aren't affected.

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Unfortunately, Angie doesn't have enough money in her account right now. She needs to make additional contributions at the end o
SIZIF [17.4K]

Answer: $770.22

Explanation:

If she makes equal contributions then those would be annuities. The $9,000 she wants to have will be the future value of the amount currently in her account and the annuity.

9,000 = 5,000 ( 1 + r) ^ n + ( annuity * future value interest factor of an annuity, 9%,  3 years)

9,000 = 5,000 ( 1 + 9%) ^ 3 + ( Annuity * 3.2781)

9,000 = 6,475.145‬ + 3.2781 * Annuity

Annuity  = (9,000 - 6,475.145‬) / 3.2781

Annuity = $770.22

4 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2018, Moore, a fast-food company, had a balance in its Cash account of $54,000. During the 2018 accounting period,
7nadin3 [17]

Answer:

Net cash flow as at the year end=          $22,100

Explanation:

The statement of cash flows for Moore shall be calculated as follows:

Cash balance as at January 1, 2018=     $54,000

Cash inflow from operating activities=  $35,600

Cash outflow from investing activities= ($43,000)

Cash outflow from financing activities= ($24,500)

Net cash flow as at the year end=          $22,100

4 0
3 years ago
The current price of the common stock of Internet Enterprises is $100. Over the course of a year, the stock's price will either
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Current value of this newly issued option on Internet Enterprises= $25

Explanation:

Risk free rate for 6 month or period 1= (1000-909.09)/909.09=10%

Risk free rate for 1 year= (1000-826.45)/826.45=21%

Hence, risk free rate for period 2= (1+21%)/(1+10%)-1=10%

Now, Risk free rate factor for period 1 (R1)=1+10%=1.1

Risk Free rate factor for period 2 (R2)=1+10%=1.1

Upward price factor for a period(u)=(1+100%)^(1/2)=1.414

Downward price factor for a period(d)=(1-50%)^(1/2)=0.707

Probability of upward price= (R-d)/(u-d)=(1.1-0.707)/(1.414-0.707)=0.55

Probability of downward price= 1-0.55=0.45

After period 1: Upward price=100*1.414=141.4 with probability 55%

Downward price =100*0.707=70.7 with probability 45%

After period 2:

Upward Price will be =141.4*1.414=200 with probability= 55%*55%=30.25%

Downward price will be=70.7*0.707=50 with probability=45%*45%=20.25%

Mid price will be = 141.4*0.707 or 70.7*1.414=100 with probability =2*45%*55%=49.5%

Now, the highest price the stock can go is $200 with probability 30.25% and it was issued at $100

Hence, expected payoff of the option=30.25%*(200-100)=$30.25

So, current value of the newly issued option= 30.25/(1+21%)=$25

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is a condition necessary to exclude an obligation from current liabilities? Entry field with incorrect an
lutik1710 [3]

Answer:

The answer is: Obligation that has a distant due date exceeding company's operating cycle.  

Explanation:

A current liability is a financial obligation due within one year (or one normal operation cycle).

So a financial obligation that has a due date that exceeds a company´s operating cycle should have been directly classified as a long term liability (or a non current liability) in the first place. It simply is not a current liability that is changed into a long term liability, it always was a long term liability.

The other options represent the steps necessary for turning a current liability into a long term liability.

  1. Intend to refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
  2. Demonstrate the ability to complete the refinancing.
  3. Subsequently refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following careers is most likely to require business skills? a)Systems Analyst b)Hardware Engineer c)Software Engin
mezya [45]

Answer:

System Analysis

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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