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skad [1K]
3 years ago
8

Price ceilings may be imposed if: A. suppliers can make strong moral or political arguments for higher prices. B. demanders can

make strong moral or political arguments for higher prices. C. demanders can make strong moral or political arguments for lower prices. D. suppliers can make strong moral or political arguments for lower prices.
Business
1 answer:
Nat2105 [25]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

C. Demanders can make strong moral or political arguments for lower prices.

Explanation:

This explained as a legal price limit set by the government on the sellers in a way to be a protection means to the buyers. This will general control some serial hike and outrageous price on some goods and services.

Its effects are of different types; firstly, price ceiling can create huge market efficiencies in a long run and also causes hoarding of products and springing up of black markets and other hook and crook forms of marketing and this is known to cause unrest in the supply side. When these keeps pulling on, it has a negative effect on the economy of the said nation.

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Pakistan State Oil - the leading oil marketing company of Pakistan, operated approved funded defined benefit pension schemes sep
mamaluj [8]

The reasons for PSO to switch from DB to DC Scheme are:

  • It has gold standard for pensions.
  • They are more secure.
  • More generous than DC pensions and pay an income that increases along with inflation.

<h3>What are the reasons for a shift?</h3>

The movement from defined benefit (DB) to defined contribution (DC) pension plans is known to be one that has made workers to decide or make choices that may affect their financial resources in terms of retirement.

Therefore,   DC Scheme is more of a benefit to the employees that the company as it tends to lower an employee's taxable income.

Learn more about pensions from

brainly.com/question/10318001

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3 0
2 years ago
All of the following statements related to preparation of the statement of cash flows under U.S. GAAP and IFRS are true except:
iVinArrow [24]

Answer: IFRS permits the classification of cash outflows for interest expense under operating or financing based on which one results in better cash flows from operating activities.

Explanation: The cash flow statement includes only inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents; it excludes transactions that do not directly affect cash receipts and payments. These non-cash transactions include depreciation or write-offs on bad debts or credit losses to name a few.

6 0
3 years ago
Camden Corporations agreed to build a warehouse for a client at an agreed contract price of $ 900,000. Expected (and actual) cos
weqwewe [10]

Answer:

Key figures:

2016:

Revenue = $270,000

Expenses = $202,500

Income = $67,500

2017:

Revenue = $450,000

Expenses = $337,500

Income = $112,500

2018:

Revenue = $180,000

Expenses = $135,000

Income = $45,000

Explanation:

Under this method, percentage of work completed is determined using the following <u>formula:</u>

<em>Percentage of work completed = (Total Expenses incurred on the project till the close of the accounting period) ÷ (Total Estimated Cost of the Contract)</em>

Total estimated cost = $202,500 + $337,500 + $135,000 = $675,000

<u>2016:</u>

Percentage of work completed = ($202,500 ÷ $675,000)×100 = 30%

Expenses in 2016 = $202,500 (answer)

Revenue in 2016 = $900,000 × 30% = $270,000 (answer)

Income in 2016 = Revenue - Expenses

Income in 2016 = $270,000 - $202,500

Income in 2016 = $67,500 (answer)

<u>2017:</u>

Percentage of work completed = ($337,500 ÷ $675,000)×100 = 50%

Expenses in 2017 = $337,500 (answer)

Revenue in 2017 = $900,000 × 50% = $450,000 (answer)

Income in 2017 = Revenue - Expenses

Income in 2017 = $450,000 - $337,500

Income in 2017 = $112,500 (answer)

<u>2018:</u>

Percentage of work completed = ($135,000 ÷ $675,000)×100 = 20%

Expenses in 2018 = $135,000 (answer)

Revenue in 2018 = $900,000 × 20% = $180,000 (answer)

Income in 2018 = Revenue - Expenses

Income in 2018 = $180,000 - $135,000

Income in 2018 = $45,000 (answer)

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose demand is given by q = 80 - 0.5p. what is the price elasticity of demand when p = 40?
Rasek [7]
<span>I believe the answer to this question is: the price elasticity of demand is 60. q = 80 - 0.5(40) is the equation I used. Half of 40 is 20, and 80 minus 20 is 60.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
A man purchased $510 worth savings bonds in denominations of $15 and $30, including at least 1 of each denomination. He gave awa
miskamm [114]

Answer: 330

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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