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kari74 [83]
3 years ago
9

HELP!!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
m_a_m_a [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

(0,0)

Step-by-step explanation:

The coordinates of C now are (-7,-5).

Moving C -3 on the x-axis will move -7 - 3 = -10. C is now located on (-10,-5).

Moving C +5 on the y-axis will move -5 + 5 = 0. C is now located on (-10,0).

Moving C on the y-axis +10 will move -10 + 10 = 0. C is now located on (0,0).

C is translated to (0,0).

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Explain why ΔADB ≅ ΔCDB. List the other corresponding parts.
anygoal [31]

Answer:

Therefore the Correct option is First one

SAS, ∠A ≅ ∠C,  AB ≅ CB , ∠ABD ≅ ∠CBD .

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

∠BDA ≅ ∠BDC

AD ≅ CD

TO Prove

ΔADB ≅ ΔCDB

Proof:

In  ΔADB  and ΔCDB  

AD ≅ CD               ....……….{Given}

∠BDA ≅ ∠BDC     …………..{Given}

BD ≅ BD               ....……….{Reflexive Property}

ΔADB ≅ ΔCDB  ….{By Side-Angle-Side Congruence Postulate}

∴ ∠A ≅ ∠C  ......{Corresponding Parts of Congruent Triangle are Congruent}

  AB ≅ CB  ......{Corresponding Parts of Congruent Triangle are Congruent}

∠ABD ≅ ∠CBD {Corresponding Parts of Congruent Triangle are Congruent}

3 0
3 years ago
Calculate the future value of the annuity assuming that it is (1) an ordinary annuity (2) an annuity due. Comparing the two type
olga55 [171]

Answer: Here's the complete question.

calculate the future value of the annuity assuming that it is (1) an ordinary annuity (2) an annuity due. Comparing the two types of annuities, all else equal, which type is more preferable? Why? Amount of annuity Interest rate Deposit period (years) $500 12% 6

Ordinary annuity = 4545, annuity due = 4058 , ordinary annuity is better because it discounts for one less year

Ordinary annuity = 4058, annuity due = 4545, annuity due is better because it discounts for one less year.

Ordinary annuity = 4058, annuity due = 4545, annuity due is better because it compounds for one more year.

Ordinary annuity = 4545, annuity due = 4058 , ordinary annuity is better because it compounds for one more year.

Step-by-step explanation:

Future value of ordinary annuity = Amount*[{(1+r)n – 1}/r]

= 500*[{(1.12)6 – 1}/0.12]

= $4,057.59

i.e. $4,058

Future value of annuity due = (1+r)*Future value of ordinary annuity

= 1.12*4,058

= $4,545

Hence, the answer is

Ordinary annuity = 4058, annuity due = 4545, annuity due is better because it compounds for one more year.

Since payments are made at the beginning of the year

8 0
3 years ago
Five less than twice a number is equal to 57
Sliva [168]
The easiest way to do this is to break it down and translate it before solving. Start with twice a number, if you use n to represent eh number, you will have 2n. Then, add the 'less than' part. 'Five less than' means that five is being subtracted from the next part, which is 2n. Now you have 2n - 5. The last translation is simple, 'equal to 57' will complete the equation as 2n - 5 = 57.
If you want to solve the equation, use the Order of Operations.

2n - 5 = 57    Add 5 to both sides
     2n = 62    Divide both sides by 2
       n = 31
5 0
3 years ago
Answer please hahahahhaha​
levacccp [35]

\dfrac{5-i}{4+3i}=\dfrac{(5-i)(4-3i)}{(4+3i)(4-3i)}=\dfrac{20-15i-4i-3}{16+9}=\dfrac{17-19i}{25}=\dfrac{17}{25}-\dfrac{19}{25}i

7 0
2 years ago
Please helppppppppppppp
Ulleksa [173]

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

A function cannot have two x values that are the same, only same y values are allowed.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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