Answer:
The "Dark Ages" is a historical periodization traditionally referring to the Middle Ages (c. 5th–15th century) that asserts that a demographic, cultural, and economic deterioration occurred in Western Europe following the decline of the Roman Empire.The term employs traditional light-versus-darkness imagery to contrast the era's "darkness" (lack of records) with earlier and later periods of "light" (abundance of records). The concept of a "Dark Age" originated in the 1330s with the Italian scholar Petrarch, who regarded the post-Roman centuries as "dark" compared to the "light" of classical antiquity.The phrase "Dark Age" itself derives from the Latin saeculum obscurum, originally applied by Caesar Baronius in 1602 to a tumultuous period in the 10th and 11th centuries.The concept thus came to characterize the entire Middle Ages as a time of intellectual darkness between the fall of Rome and the Renaissance; this became especially popular during the 18th-century Age of Enlightenment. As the accomplishments of the era came to be better understood in the 19th and 20th centuries, scholars began restricting the "Dark Ages" appellation to the Early Middle Ages (c. 5th–10th century),and now scholars also reject its usage in this period.The majority of modern scholars avoid the term altogether due to its negative connotations, finding it misleading and inaccurate. Petrarch's pejorative meaning remains in use,typically in popular culture which often characteristics the Middle Ages as a time of violence and backwardness.
Explanation:
I think this is the answer but i don't know.
Answer: Tariff
Explanation: Just did it on A pex
The Indian Removal Act was signedinto law by President Andrew Jackson on May 28, 1830, authorizing the president to grant unsettled lands west of the Mississippi in exchange forIndian lands within existing state borders. A few tribes went peacefully, but many resisted the relocationpolicy.
To compete with other European countries,
To expand global influence
To compete with growing public perferance and reduction of truama from the revolutionary war
With the regards to the statement that if not for Americans participating in WWI, Prohibition would not happen, this statement is <u>false</u>.
<h3>Why is this statement false?</h3>
The movement to enact prohibition was already growing strongly before the First World War broke out.
In fact, before the U.S. joined the war, those in support of Prohibition had majorities in the two houses of Congress. WWI was merely an event that sped up the rate of prohibition and without it, Prohibition would have still happened at a later stage.
Find out more on Prohibition at brainly.com/question/3814594.
