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Lynna [10]
3 years ago
11

At the minimum efficient​ scale,

Business
1 answer:
mina [271]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is D. the firm has achieved the lowest possible average cost of production.

Explanation:

The minimum efficient scale is called the value of production for which the average long-term cost is minimal and also coincides with the marginal cost.

On the minimum efficient scale it is said that we are in the smallest possible production in which a long-term competitive company would be interested in producing. Below that value, the company would go into losses and should close.

The curve of long-term average costs is obtained from the envelope of the infinite possible curves of short-term average costs for different plant sizes, that is, for different levels of capital. From this envelope, a U-shaped average cost curve is obtained, at which minimum, precisely, the minimum efficient scale is found.

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A $72 NSF check was returned from Mr. Smith, a company client. On a bank reconciliation, this would be shows as a(n)
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B for sure I hope this helps yuh
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Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return +  beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

  - Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

  - Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

  - Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

  - Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What happens when production is inside the production possibilities curve
Paul [167]

Answer:

When it shifts inwards, it indicates that the economy is shrinking due to a failure in its allocation of resources and optimal production capability. A shrinking economy could be a result of a decrease in supplies or a deficiency in technology.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Any contract, whether it is for the sale of real estate or some other entity, must contain five basic elements. However, any con
Alexandra [31]

Answer:

d

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Fowler Company is a priceminustaker and uses target pricing. Refer to the following​ information: Production volume 602 comma 00
frosja888 [35]

Answer:

The target fixed cost per year for Fowler company is $5,463,000

Explanation:

In this question, we are asked to calculate the target fixed cost for a company assuming that variable costs cannot be reduced and also all units produced are sold.

We start by calculating the revenue generated by the company.

602,000 units were produced and sold at a market price of $30. This means total revenue is;

602,000 * 30 = $18,060,000

We then proceed to subtract the desired operating income from the revenue. From the question, we can identify that the desired operating income is 17% of total asset, with total asset being $13,900,000

Desired operating income = 17/100 * $13,900,000 = $2,363,000

Subtracting desired operating income from recent yields: $18,060,000 - $2,363,000 = $15,697,000

To get the target fixed cost per year, we simply subtract variable cost from the difference.

Summarily, this mathematically means that; target fixed cost per year = Revenue - Desired operating income - variable cost

Variable cost = $17 per 602,000 units per year = 17 * 602,000 = $10,234,000

Target fixed cost per year = $15,697,000 - $10,234,000 = $5,463,000

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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