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Rom4ik [11]
3 years ago
10

After the end of the second year and all other factors remaining equal, a future value based on compound interest will never exc

eed the future value based on simple interest.
a. True
b. False

The process of earning compound interest allows a depositor or investor to earn interest on any interest earned in prior periods.
a. True
b. False
Business
1 answer:
kari74 [83]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: 1. False

2. True

Explanation:

1. Compound Interest allows an investor to earn money on the interest that has already accrued to the investment instead of just on the original investment like Simple interest. For this reason, the future value of compound interest will always be larger than simple interest for the simple reason that Compound interest is being charged on an amount larger than the amount being used for Simpler interest.

2. The process of compound interest does indeed allow a depositor/ investor to earn interest on any interest earned in prior periods. For instance, if the interest rate on a $500 saving is 10% per annum and it is using Compound interest, in the first year the interest earned will be,

= 10% * 500

= $50

In the second year the interest earned will be,

= 10% * 500 + the previous year interest

= 10% * 550

= $55

Notice how the interest has increased.

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Jackson Tires reported net sales of $80 million and total operating costs (including depreciation) of $52 million. Jackson Tires
Roman55 [17]

Answer:

d. 8.18 million

MVA is $380 million

Explanation:

Net residual Income is the value of the firm. All the preferred and required / agreed return on any the funding availed is deducted from the net earning after profit to make the value for the firm. The income purely associated to the firm is considered as the value of the firm.

Earning Before Interest and tax = Net Sales - Operating costs = $80 million - $52 million = $28 million

Net Operating profit after tax = $28 x ( 1 - 40% ) = $16.8 million

Return on investor-supplied capital = $115 million x 7.5% = $8.625 million

Value created for the firm = Net operating profit after tax - Return on investor-supplied capital = $16.8 - $8.625 = $8.175 million = $8.18 million

MVA is the net of market capitalization and stockholders equity of the firm. It is the difference of market value and book value of equity of a firm.

MVA = ( Outstanding shares x Market value of shares ) - Book value od the equity = ( 20 million shares x $25 per share ) - $120 million = $500 million - $120 million = $380 million

6 0
3 years ago
The Federal Reserve has the power to implement and manage which type of
Fed [463]

Answer:

B I think but I dont want to get this wrong for you so make sure with someone else to

3 0
3 years ago
Quip Corporation wants to purchase a new machine for $300,000. Management predicts that the machine will produce sales of $200,0
butalik [34]

Answer:

net present value NPV = $79800

so correct option is D) $79,800

Explanation:

solution

we knw that Net Present value = PV of cash inflow - PV of cash outflow    ............1

so here PV of cash outflow = $300000  

and Net sales = $200000

expenses = $80000

Depreciation =  \frac{300000-50000}{5}

Depreciation =  $50000

so Net income before taxes  = Net sales - Depreciation - expenses

Net income before taxes =  $200000  - $80000 - $50000

Net income before taxes =  $70000

and Tax expenses @ 40% = $28000

so

Net income = Net income before taxes - Tax expenses

Net income = $70000  - $28000

Net income = $42000

and

Depreciation = $50000

Net cash inflow =  Net income + Depreciation

Net cash inflow =  $42000  + $50000

Net cash inflow = $92000

and

PVIFA @ 10% 5 years = $3.7908

so

PV of cash inflow = $348755

PV of salvage value = $50000 ×0.6209

PV of salvage value = $31045

and

so here  Total PV of total cash inflow = $379800

and

net present value  NPV =  Total PV of total cash inflow - PV of cash outflow

net present value NPV = $379800 - $300000

net present value NPV = $79800

so correct option is D) $79,800

7 0
4 years ago
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It is believed that ______________ weaken the chemical bonds that constituent mineral grains, enabling them to act in more of a
Ghella [55]
When it comes to the deformation of rocks, it is believed that water weaken the chemical bonds that constituent mineral grains. Water forms a film around the mineral and weaken the bonds. This is why wet rocks tend to act in a more ductile manner. If a rock is dry, they tend to be more brittle.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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