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Tresset [83]
3 years ago
5

9) Selected information regarding a company's most recent quarter follows (all data in thousands). 9) _______ Direct labor $540

Beginning work in process inventory $330 Ending work in process inventory $420 Cost of goods manufactured $1620 Manufacturing overhead $830 What was the cost of direct materials used for the quarter
Business
1 answer:
disa [49]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Direct material= $340

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Direct labor $540

Beginning work in process inventory $330

Ending work in process inventory $420

Cost of goods manufactured $1620

Manufacturing overhead $830

T<u>o calculate the direct material used in production, we need to use the following formula:</u>

cost of goods manufactured= beginning WIP + direct materials + direct labor + allocated manufacturing overhead - Ending WIP

1,620= 330 + DM + 540 + 830 - 420

Direct material= $340

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Group price discrimination has ________ consumer surplus than under ________.
makvit [3.9K]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": less; perfect competition.

Explanation:

Typically, <em>more output is produced in perfect competition markets than in markets ruled by price discrimination</em>. Consumer surplus is greater at the same time. Group price discrimination transfers the company some of the competitive consumer surpluses as an additional profit and causes the loss of deadweight due to reduced production.

5 0
3 years ago
Consider a 10​-year bond with a face value of $ 1 comma 000 that has a coupon rate of 5.1 %​, with semiannual payments. a. What
poizon [28]

Answer:

Answer is given below.

Explanation:

SOLUTION

a. Calculation of Coupon Payment

Coupon Payment = Face Value X Coupon Rate /2

Coupon Payment = 1000*5.5% /2

Coupon Payment = 55 /2= 27.5

Therefore the Coupon Payment is  = 27.51

cash flow diagram is attached.

3 0
3 years ago
Sales (19,500 units at $30 per unit) $585,000 Variable expenses 409,500 Contribution margin 175,500 Fixed expenses 180,000 Net o
vichka [17]

Answer:

                                                                                                   Automated

Sales (19,500 units at $30 per unit)            $585,000            $585,000

Variable expenses                                        409,500               351,000

Contribution margin                                       175,500              234,000

Fixed expenses                                              180,000              252,000

Net operating loss                                          $(4,500)           $( 18,000)

New Cm ratio=  Contribution Margin/ Sales Revenue

                      = $ 234,000 $ 585,000 = 0.4

Break-even point in  dollars=  Fixed Costs/ 1- (variable Cost/ Sales)

                                            =  252,000/ 1- (351,000/ 585,000)

                                             = 252,000/ 1-0.6

                                               = 252,000/0.4= $ 630,000

The resulting $ 630,000 is the break even point at which neither a loss nor a profit is incurred.This can be checked as follows.

Sales                                                                         $ 630,000

Variable Costs  ( 60 % $ 630,000)                          $ 378,000

Contribution Margin                                                   $ 252,000

Less Fixed Expense                                                   <u>$ 252,000</u>

Profit                                                                           <u>       0            </u>

Break even point in units =  Fixed Costs/ Contribution Margin in units

                                         = $ 252,000/ (30-18)

                                          =$ 252,000/ $ 12= 21,000 units

Two Contribution format Income Statements:

                                                                                                   Automated

Sales (26,000 units at $30 per unit)           $780,000            $780,000

Variable expenses                                        546,000               468,000

Contribution margin                                       234,000                312,000

Fixed expenses                                              180,000              252,000

Net operating Profit                                     $ 54,000                $ 60,000

Working:

Variable Costs per unit = $ 409500/19500=  $ 21

After reduction variable costs = $ 21- $3= $ 18

4 0
3 years ago
Treasury stock is:
VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:

a. Common stock acquired by the company in the open market & recorded as negative equity

Explanation:

A stock which is buy back from the market at market rate issued by the company. It reduces the total outstanding shares of the company. It is the difference of Number of share issued and Number of share outstanding. Its account is consider as contra equity account. So the correct option is a. Common stock acquired by the company in the open market & recorded as negative equity.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Karen Wilson Construction Company is considering the acquisition of a new bulldozer. Big Tools, Inc. has offered to lease the eq
zlopas [31]

Answer:

a) 175,437.77

b)

\left[\begin{array}{ccccc}Year&Beg Principal&Interest&Installment&Ending\\1&175437.77&15789.4&-24500&166727.17\\2&166727.17&15005.45&-24500&157232.62\\3&157232.62&14150.94&-24500&146883.56\\4&146883.56&13219.52&-24500&135603.08\\5&135603.08&12204.28&-24500&123307.36\\6&123307.36&11097.66&-24500&109905.02\\7&109905.02&9891.45&-24500&95296.47\\8&95296.47&8576.68&-24500&79373.15\\9&79373.15&7143.58&-24500&62016.73\\10&62016.73&5581.51&-24500&43098.24\\\end{array}\right]

\left[\begin{array}{ccccc}11&43098.24&3878.84&-24500&22477.08\\12&22477.08&2022.94&-24500&0.02\\\end{array}\right]

(I split into two arrays as I couldn't put  the entire information into one)

c) because of the time value of money the principal generates interest over time making the installment pay up both concept principal and interest.

d) they decrease as the principal decreases over time as the lease payment exceeds the interest accrued over the year.

Explanation:

a) it will record at the present value of the lease payment annuity

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 24,500

time 12

rate 0.09

24500 \times \frac{1-(1+0.09)^{-12} }{0.09} = PV\\

PV $175,437.7693

b)

we build the table starting withthe beginning lease value

calcualte the interest accrued over the year and subtract the lease payment

this makes a new balance of the loan principal which start the process again until it is fully paid.

5 0
3 years ago
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