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tresset_1 [31]
3 years ago
13

Consider two perfectly negatively correlated risky securities, X and Y. Security X has an expected rate of return of 9% and a st

andard deviation of return of 27%. Y has an expected rate of return of 17% and a standard deviation of return of 39%. What is the weight of security Y in the minimum variance portfolio? Enter your answer rounded to two decimal places. Do not enter % in the answer box. For example, if your answer is 0.12345 or 12.345% then enter as 12.35 in the answer box.
Business
1 answer:
Aneli [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

0.41

Explanation:

The computation of the weight of security Y in the minimum variance portfolio is shown below:-

Weight of security X = Standard deviation of security Y ÷ (Sum of the standard deviation of securities)

= 39% ÷ (39% + 27%)

= 39% ÷ 66%

= 59.01%

Weight of security Y = 1 - Weight of security X

= 1 - 59.01%

= 0.41

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storchak [24]

The combination of outlay and Tax revenue that will help correct the deficit situation of Country X is found in Option D. This condition means that the country's tax revenue is in excess of its spending by $200 Million.

<h3>What is a Budget Deficit?</h3>

When there is a shortfall between the available funds or revenue required to service the budget, the country is said to be operating in a budget deficit situation. Note that outlay means spending.

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6 0
2 years ago
Stocks 1 and 2 are selling for $100 and $125, respectively. You own 200 shares of stock 1 and 100 shares of stock 2. The weekly
dezoksy [38]

Answer: covariance matrix is

(0.00090 0.00042)

(0.00042 0.00160)

Mean of weekly return = 0.00119

Standard deviation = 0.0279

VaR(0.05) = $1450.73

Explanation:

> S1 = 200*100

> S2 = 100*125

> w1 = S1/(S1+S2)

> w2 = 1 - w1

> w = c(w1,w2)

> means = c(0.001, 0.0015)

> sd = c(0.03, 0.04)

> rho = 0.35

> multiply = w %*%

means> round(mutiply by 5)=0.00119

> cov = matrix(c(sd^2, sd[1]*sd[2]*rho,sd[1]*sd[2]*rho,sd[2]^2),nrow=2) = 0.00090, 0.00042, 0.00042, 0.00160

> sdp = sqrt( w %*% cov %*% w )> round(sdp,4)=0.0279

> VaR = -(S1+S2)*(mup+sdp*qnorm(.05))

=1450.73

6 0
4 years ago
What would you have done if you were an employee at Enron and you found out about all the unethical things going on in the compa
Volgvan

Answer:

478

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
PA10.
nevsk [136]

Answer:

Traditional allocation method

Overhead allocation rate

= <u>Budgeted overhead</u>

  Budgeted machine hours

= <u>$1,050,000</u>

  50,000 hours

= $21 per machine hour

Overhead allocation

 Product A = $21 x 10,000 = $210,000

 Product B = $21 x 40,000 = $840,000

Using activity-based costing

Cost driver rates

Machine set-up = <u>$250,000</u>

                               10,000 set-ups

                           = $25 per set-up

Assembly =  <u>$300,000</u>

                     60,000 parts

                =   $5 per part

Machine maintenance = <u>$500,000</u>

                                          50,000 hours    

                                     = $10 per machine hour

              Overhead allocation based on ABC

                                        A                    B

                                         $                    $

Machine set-up              175,000        75,000

Assembly                       125,000       175,000

Machine maintenance  <u> 100,000</u>       <u>400,000 </u>                                                                                                                                                          

Total cost                      <u>  400,000</u>      <u>650,000</u>

Explanation:

In traditional allocation method, there is need to calculate the overhead allocation rate, which is the ratio of budgeted overhead to budgeted machine hours. Then, the overhead allocation rate will be used to multiply the machine hours for each product in order to obtain the overhead allocated.

In activity-based costing, there is need to calculate the cost driver rates, which is the ratio of overhead of each cost pool to the total cost driver                                of each cost pool. Then, we will multiply the cost driver rate by the cost driver for each product in order to obtain the allocated overhead.

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3 years ago
One potentially effective step in closing the pay gap that women can take immediately is to
katen-ka-za [31]

<span>One potentially effective step in closing the pay gap that women can take immediately is to speak up, ask for more money in a form of a raise. There has always been talk and truth behind why men get paid more for doing the same job that a woman is. Unfortunately, in most companies this is truth. Women know this but accept the pay they are given, if they wish to see change, ask for change. </span>

7 0
3 years ago
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