Amount in the bank $23479
amount deposited is 25% this will be equal to:
25/100*23479
=$5869.75
The total amount in the bank is:
23479+5869.75
=$29348.75
the percentage she must withdraw for her to remain with the initial amount is:
5869.75/29348.75
=0.2
=20%
Answer:
The answer is:
when a nation's central bank makes an open market purchase of 20-year bonds, short-run effect is that the quantity of money in circulation increases, interest rates are low because the nation's commercial banks have more money to lend. Households and businesses are motivated to borrow money because of low rates
Explanation:
This is a monetary tool - open-market operation which is a situation in which when the central bank purchases securities inorder to increase the money supply and sells securities to decrease the money supply.
So when a nation's central bank makes an open market purchase of 20-year bonds, short-run effect is that the quantity of money in circulation increases, interest rates are low because the nation's commercial banks have more money to lend. Households and businesses are motivated to borrow money because of low rates.
This is usually done to stimulate the economy i.e to stop the economy from slowing down.
Answer:
The correct answer is option c.
Explanation:
Fiat money refers to the currency which is not backed by any physical assets such as gold or silver. Its value is derived from its demand and supply rather than through the value of commodity it is backed by.
Since the currency is not backed by gold, it will not be affected by the discovery of gold. Had it been backed by gold, the money supply would have increased.
Purchasing treasury securities, decreasing the required reserve ratio, decreasing the discount rate will all increase the reserves with the commercial This will lead to an increase in money supply through increased lending.
Since water is an abundant commodity, linking the value of money to water will increase money supply.
Answer:
true , for sure because the lesser the deadweight loss of a tax
Answer:
Overapplied overhead= $7,575 overapplied
Explanation:
<u>First, we need to allocate overhead costs based on actual hours: </u>
<u></u>
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 31.25*4,780
Allocated MOH= $149,375
<u>Now, the over/under allocation:</u>
Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead
Under/over applied overhead= 141,800 - 149,375
Overapplied overhead= $7,575 overapplied
