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2 years ago

What is the aswer to ....y=3x+30

Mathematics

2 answers:

Maksim231197 [3]2 years ago

6 0

The equation is written in slope intercept form [ y = mx + b ]

m = slope

b = y-intercept

Using what I wrote above, we can see that:

m = 3

b = 30

Best of Luck!

QveST [7]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Solve y-3x+30 = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Tiger recognizes that we have here an equation of a straight line. Such an equation is usually written y=mx+b ("y=mx+c" in the UK).

"y=mx+b" is the formula of a straight line drawn on Cartesian coordinate system in which "y" is the vertical axis and "x" the horizontal axis.

In this formula :

y tells us how far up the line goes

x tells us how far along

m is the Slope or Gradient i.e. how steep the line is

b is the Y-intercept i.e. where the line crosses the Y axis

The X and Y intercepts and the Slope are called the line properties. We shall now graph the line y-3x+30 = 0 and calculate its properties

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Step-by-step explanation:

n × 0.2=0.08

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2 years ago

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2 years ago

A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas

WITCHER [35]

Answer:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

$P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2$

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

$P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)$

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

$P(B' \cup A')$

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

$(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'$

So then we can write the probability like this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')$

And using the complement rule we can do this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)$

Since A and B are independent we have:

$P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32$

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2 years ago

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olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago