Answer:
<u>A and B are correct</u>
Explanation :
- The TVM concept is based on the value of money which is today may change with time as a rise or fall in prices thus this explains why the interest rates are paid and calculated on the basis of the present values that may change such as future sum of money of cash flows, can get discontinued at the discounted rates.
- Future values can be ascertained based on the present value of the product/assert. Thus the interest rates and inflation rates change as the risks and the consumer's needs will always be present and have existed earlier.
- It's calculated by the present value and future value of money multiplied by the interest rate and the total number of years. I.e
- FV = PV x [ 1 + (i / n) ] (n x t)
Answer:
4. Amounts owed to suppliers
Explanation:
We know that
Balance sheet comprises of assets, liabilities and the stockholder equity
The assets could be classified into current asset, fixed asset, and the intangible assets
While the liabilities are also classified into current liabilities and the long term liabilities
The account receivable, equipment, supplies have come on the asset side of the balance sheet whereas the account payable or amount owed to suppliers have come on the liabilities side of the balance sheet
So, the most appropriate option is 4.
Answer:
High-tech firms are hiring expensive, sophisticated people who are in high demand compared to fast food franchises and treat them better to avoid losing them to other companies
Explanation:
High-tech firms are hiring expensive, sophisticated people who are in high demand. This brings about a better treatment of their employees because if they do not offer these amenities to employees, they would become employees of other high-tech companies. Individuals with low skill levels do not get high salaries or benefits. They are not in as high demand as highly skilled workers. It is efficient, but many would argue that it is not fair.
Answer:
C) I only.
Explanation:
According to the Uniform Securities Act, A civil case underneath the provisions of the United States must be filed in 3 years of the alleged infringement, or 2 years from the detection of the breach, whatever comes first.
Also, The passing of the consultant or the client doesn't really eliminate a civil liability prima facie case. Waivers to statements agreed to sign by the customer waiving adherence by the consultant with the provisions of this act on which the suit is focused aren't ever legitimate on the examination.
Therefore the option i is correct
The answer is $809. There are 52 weeks in a year, so $42,068/52 = $809.
