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2 years ago

8

?Charlotte mentions that she believes the company “has a great track record when it comes to equity.” What evidence is she consi

dering

1 answer:

Liono4ka [1.6K]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Do you need help with this? or

Explanation:

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There are four closing entries: The first one is to close ___________________. The second one is to close __________________. Th

arlik [135]

Answer:

Revenues, expenses, income summary, dividend or withdraws account

Explanation:

The closing entries for the following accounts are presented below:

1. Service Revenue A/c Dr XXXXX

To Income Summary XXXXX

(Being revenue account closed)

2. Income summary A/c Dr XXXXX

To Expense A/c XXXXX

(Being expenses accounts are closed)

3. Income summary A/c Dr XXXXX

To Retained earning XXXXX

(Being the difference is credited to retained earning that reflected as a profit)

4. Retained earnings A/c Dr XXXXX

To Dividend A/c XXXXX

(Being dividend account is closed)

8 0

3 years ago

Which of the following is correct with respect to Debt Service Funds?

Verizon [17]

Answer:

C. Debt service funds account for and report financial resources that are restricted, committed or assigned to expenditure for principle and interest for governmental debts except debt of proprietary and fiduciary funds who account for their own interest and principle payments.

Explanation:

Debt service funds are used to pay for principal and interest on certain types of debts. This reduced the risk of debt security that investors face and also reduces the effective rate at which the offering can be sold.

However debt service funds cannot be used for proprietary funds like 400 and 500.

Instead we use Enterprise funds for 400. That is operations similar to corporate enterprise. For example water and sewage utilities.

Internal service funds for 500 used by other funds or departments bin a government in a cost reimbursement basis. For example a food supplier that takes orders and is reimbursed for each order.

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Using the percentage of net sales method, uncollectible accounts expense for the year is estimated to be $54,000. If the balance

PilotLPTM [1.2K]

Answer:

The correct answer is c) $72,000

Explanation:

(Using the percentage of net sales method)

Uncollectible accounts expense for the year is estimated to be $54,000

If the balance of the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts is an $18,000 credit before adjustment.

$54,000 + $18,000= $72,000

The balance after adjustment is $72,000

6 0

3 years ago

Which of the following statements will an auditor most likely add to the negative from of confirmations of accounts receivable t

MrRissso [65]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": "If you do not report any differences with 15 days, it will be assumed that this statement is correct".

Explanation:

Accounts Receivable, or AR, is an accounting term used to refer to the money that is owed to a company by its customers. The customers, who may be individuals or corporations, are the debtors since they owe money for the goods or services provided by the company. When the product is sold in credit the company sets a number of days so that the customer can pay the bill amount. The term usually is 30, 60 or 90 days.

In that sense, and auditor may find 15 days suitable for a debtor for report changes in a statement, otherwise, it is considered as correct.

7 0

3 years ago

Two investment advisers are comparing performance. Adviser A averaged a 20% return with a portfolio beta of 1.5, and adviser B a

Agata [3.3K]

Answer:

Option A is the correct answer.

A. Advisor A was better because he generated a larger alpha.

Explanation:

To determine which adviser would be the better stock selector, we will calculate the required rate of return of each adviser and the return actually averaged. The adviser with the greater abnormal return, which is return in excess of required rate, will be the better stock selector.

Using the CAPM, we can calculate the required rate of return on a stock. This is the minimum return required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk, the market's risk premium and the risk free rate.

The formula for required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

rRF is the risk free rate

rM is the market return

r of Adviser A = 0.05 + 1.5 * (0.13 - 0.05)

r of Adviser A = 0.17 or 17%

Abnormal or excess return of Adviser A = 20% - 17% = 3%

r of Adviser B = 0.05 + 1.2 * (0.13 - 0.05)

r of Adviser B = 0.146 or 14.6%

Abnormal or excess return of Adviser B = 15% - 14.6% = 0.4%

Adviser A performed better as the excessive return or alpha of Adviser A was 3% while that of Adviser B was 0.4%

7 0

3 years ago