It was "India" that successfully maintained neutrality when it came to dealing with the two superpowers following World War II and carrying forward into the
<span>'60s, since they had gained a great deal of autonomy after the relative fall of the British Empire. </span>
Answer:
Reynolds v Sims and Baker v Carr, I think.
Explanation:
Hope this helped!
-ROsemaryAndStars
<span>original and appellate! hope this helps! :)</span>
I believe it's because the British Empire inconsistent treatment.
At first, British empire treated the colonists fairly and both of them developed a mutually beneficial relationship with one another.
After 1763, the British Empire issued a regulation that banned the Colonists to issue their own paper money, which make it realy hard for the colonists to pay off their debt.
