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kykrilka [37]
2 years ago
14

The managers of pork farm inc., a meat-packing company, want to create more consumer demand for the company's products that are

not as popular as its competitors. they have a meeting to decide on the effective communication strategies that can be used to increase the popularity of pork farm inc.'s products among customers. they want to do this by advertising their company's products. in this scenario, the managers of pork farm inc. are developing the _____.
Business
1 answer:
Olegator [25]2 years ago
4 0

They are developing a marketing strategy to build their advertising message, position and brand recognition upon.
You might be interested in
What is the one major category that separates national debt from public debt?
sergiy2304 [10]
D. Debt held by other government agencies

National debt and public debt are same but public debt includes debt held by individuals, local or state governements, federal reserve banks and other entities.
6 0
2 years ago
The Thomlin Company forecasts that total overhead for the current year will be $11,420,000 with 157,000 total machine hours. Yea
Alex17521 [72]

Answer:

Under/over applied overhead= $1,899,000 underallocated

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated overhead= $11,420,000

Estimated machine-hours= 157,000

Actual overhead is $7,958,000 and the actual machine hours are 83,000 hours.

First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 11,420,000/157,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $73 per machine hour

Now, we can allocate overhead:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 73*83,000= $6,059,000

Finally, we can determine the under/over allocation:

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 7,958,000 - 6,059,000

Under/over applied overhead= $1,899,000 underallocated

8 0
3 years ago
While your hands are on home row, your left hand rests lightly on _____. z x c v j k l ; q w e r a s d f
denpristay [2]

it will rest lightly on the pinky finger on the right hand

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You buy a seven-year bond that has a 5.25% current yield and a 5.25% coupon (paid annually). In one year, promised yields to mat
Rufina [12.5K]

Answer:

HPR = 0.371%

Explanation:

we must first determine the price of the bond in 1 year:

present value of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 6.25%)⁶ = $695.07

present value of coupon payments = $52.50 x 4.87894 (PV annuity factor, 6.25%, 6 periods) = $256.14

market price in 1 year = $951.21

since you bought the bond at face value (market value = YTM), the the holding period return is:

HPR = [(ending price - actual price) + dividends received] / actual price

HPR = [($951.21 - $1,000) + $52.50] / $1,000 = $3.71 / $1,000 = 0.371%

5 0
2 years ago
A delivery van costing $37,000 is expected to have a $2,900 salvage value at the end of its useful life of five years. Assume th
valkas [14]

Answer:

A.

Depreciation expense for the first year: $6,820

Depreciation expense for the second year: $6,820

B.

Depreciation expense for the first year: $13,640

Depreciation expense for the second year: $8,184

Explanation:

A. The company uses straight-line depreciation method, Depreciation Expense each year is calculated by following formula:  

Annual Depreciation Expense = (Cost of delivery van − Salvage Value )/Useful Life = ($37,000 - $2,900)/5 = $6,820

Depreciation expense for the first year: $6,820

Depreciation expense for the second year: $6,820

B. The company uses Double-declining- balance method

Under the straight-line method, useful life is 5 years, so the asset's annual depreciation will be 20% of the Depreciable cost.

Depreciable cost = Total asset cost - salvage value =  $37,000 - $2,900 = $34,100

Under the double-declining-balance method the 20% straight line rate is doubled to 40% - multiplied times the Depreciable cost's book value at the beginning of the year.

Depreciation expense for the first year = $34,100 x 40% = $13,640

At the beginning of second year, the Depreciable cost's book value is $34,100-$13,640 = $20,460

Depreciation expense for the second year = $20,460 x 40% = $8,184

8 0
2 years ago
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