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leonid [27]
2 years ago
7

Aubey Aircraft recently announced that its net income increased sharply from the previous year, yet its net cash flow from opera

tions declined. Which of the following could explain this performance?a. The company's operating income declined.b. The company's expenditures on fixed assets declined.c. The company's cost of goods sold increased.d. The company's depreciation and amortization expenses declined.e. The company's interest expense increased.
Business
1 answer:
-Dominant- [34]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option D) The company's depreciation and amortization expenses declined

Explanation:

When Aubey Aircraft´s depreciation and amortization decrease, it has less cost of sales and an improvement in the Gross Margin, hence,  in the Net Income, but this enhancement in the Net Income has an opposite effect on Net Cash Flow because less depreciation and amortization means less Net Cash Flow,  

Net Cash Flow it's defined by Net Income plus depreciation and amortization, a less Depreciation means less Net Cash Flow.

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On January 1, 2005 Franz Company purchased a truck that cost $22,000. The truck had an expected useful life of 5 years and a $4,
allochka39001 [22]

Answer: The amount of depreciation expense recognized in 2006, using the double declining balance method is $5,280.

And the journal entries required are:

Debit Depreciation expense                     $5,280

Credit Accumulated depreciation             $5,280

Explanation: The double-declining method is otherwise known as reducing balance method. It is usually derived by using the formula below:

Double-declining depreciation = 2 X SLDP X BV

Where SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

           BV = Book value of the asset (Cost minus depreciation)

So using the straight-line depreciation method, we need to remove the salvage value from the cost and then divided by 5 years. That is, ($22,000 - $4,000) / 5 years = $3,060 yearly depreciation expense.

However, under the double-declining method, we need to divide the 100% by the useful life of the asset first to get the SLDP then multiply by 2, that is, 100%/5 years = 20% x 2 = 40%.

So 40% x $22,000 in year 1 (December 31, 2005) is $8,800

In year 2 (December 31, 2006), 40% x $13,200 ($22,000 - $8,800) = $5,280 and so on. The depreciation expense would stop immediately it falls below the salvage value of $4,000.

So the book value of the asset at the end of year 2 is $7,920 ($13,200 - $4,000 accumulated depreciation).

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You are caring for a 69-year-old man with congestive heart failure. His breathing is profoundly labored, his oxygen saturation r
sertanlavr [38]

Answer:

B)

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that in this scenario you should preoxygenate him with a bag-mask device and then perform blind nasotracheal intubation. This is the process of placing oxygen tubes into the individuals nasal track and down the throat to allow better airflow.

7 0
3 years ago
The replacement cost of an inventory item is below the net realizable value and above the net realizable value less the normal p
Andrews [41]

Answer:

D. Replacement cost.

Explanation:

As we know that the inventory should be recorded at the cost or market value whichever is lower

Given that

Original cost is less than the net realizable value subtract the profit margin

So we assume the following figures

Original cost $10

Net realizable value 9

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NRV less normal profit margin 7

As if we compare the original cost and replacement cost so the lower value is of replacement cost

hence, the same is to be considered

Therefore the correct option is D.

4 0
2 years ago
Consider the following information: the marginal products of labor for the US in producing Cars and Wheat are 24 and 18. Given t
stepan [7]

Answer:

0.75 wheat

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the cost of the next best option forgone when one alternative is chosen over other alternatives.

the opportunity cost of producing cars, is the quantity of wheat that would have to be forgone to produce one car

18 / 24 = 0.75 wheat

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2 years ago
He contract that contains provisions for surface leases related to a property is the _____.
vfiekz [6]

The contract that contains provisions for surface leases related to a property is the <u>Farm</u><u> </u><u>and Ranch contract.</u>

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A void contract is a contract that fails a validity test and is therefore not a contract. A void contract is a contract that initially appears valid but may be terminated by a party deemed to have interfered in some way.

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After a reasonable period of time, the contract is considered accepted and can no longer be objected to. Other examples include real estate contracts, attorney contracts, etc. If a contract is concluded without the free consent of the parties, it will be considered a void contract.

A voidable contract is a formal agreement between two parties that can be made unenforceable for a variety of legal reasons, including Errors, Misrepresentations, or Fraud. Excessive influence or coercion.

Learn more about contracts here brainly.com/question/984979

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8 0
2 years ago
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