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zalisa [80]
3 years ago
13

Although the courts seldom consider the adequacy of consideration, they may refuse to enforce an agreement which purports to exc

hange something of significant value for something of nominal value (sometimes called "a peppercorn"). If the courts don’t care about the adequacy of consideration, then how can they refuse to enforce an agreement due to insufficient consideration?
Business
1 answer:
Diano4ka-milaya [45]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

<u>True</u>

Explanation:

Remember, Consideration is that thing that is legally agreed and given such as money, property in exchange for something.

What usually should come first in any contract is sufficient consideration; presence of value to be given.

Therefore, a Court can refuse to enforce an agreement due to insufficient consideration because it is the primary thing that should come first in any contract.

For example, a father gives his adult son $5 on Monday as a present and the son is impressed he says he’ll give his father $10 the following day, there is no contract.  In this scenario the son does not have to give his father $10 on Tuesday, because they (son and father) did not agree to give $5 in exchange for $10. A court would term this case as having insufficient consideration.

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Q1. SISKO &amp; Co. Ltd commences business and issues one million shares with a nominal value of Le3 each. The company allows it
Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

SISKO & Co. Ltd.

1. The paid-up share capital is:

A. Le1.25 million

2. Current Ratio will be:

(B) 3:1

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Issued share capital = 1,000,000 shares

Allotment = Le1.25 per share

Paid-up share capital = Le1.25 million (Le1.25 * 1,000,000)

Current Ratio:

Cash Balance                  Le15,000

Trade Receivables         Le35,000

Inventory                        Le40,000

Total current assets      Le90,000

Current liabilities:

Trade Payables             Le24,000

Bank Overdraft               Le6,000

Total current liabilities Le30,000

Current ratio = Current assets/Current liabilities

= Le90,000/Le30,000

= 3:1

8 0
3 years ago
The next dividend payment by Hoffman, Inc., will be $3.10 per share. The dividends are anticipated to maintain a growth rate of
Pani-rosa [81]

Answer:

6.2249%

Explanation:

Dividend yield = next dividend paid / price of the stock

Dividend yield is one of the components used in calculating the total return of a stock.

Total return = price return + dividend yield

price return is the return on a stock as a result of price appreciation

Dividend yield = $3.10 / $49.80 = 0.062249 = 6.2249%

6 0
3 years ago
Economists generally favor the use of tradable emissions allowances to reduce pollution. However, the use of these allowances ha
saul85 [17]

Answer:

Some environmentalists believe the allowances give firms a license to pollute.

Explanation:

It is very easy "to buy a permission" to pollute instead of change the cause of this pollution.

8 0
3 years ago
Jones Manufacturing incurred fixed overhead costs of $8,000 and variable overhead costs of $4,600 to produce 1,000 gallons of li
anygoal [31]

Answer:

Jone Manufacturing

Total Overhead Variance = $2,000U.

Explanation:

Variance is the difference between budgeted and actual expense.  It is favorable when the actual is less than the budgeted amount.  It is unfavorable when the actual is more than the budgeted amount.  It is neither favorable nor unfavorable when the actual equals the budgeted amount.

Variance analysis as a budgeting tool is used to evaluate the performance of management in managing costs, relative to the activity levels.  

In Jones Manufacturing, actual and budgeted costs are calculated as follows:

Actual costs:

Fixed overhead = $8,000

Variable overhead = $4,600

Total = $12,600

Budget costs:

Fixed overhead = $10,000 (2,000 hours x $5)

Variable overhead = $4,600

Total = $14,600

Variance = budgeted overhead minus actual overhead

= $14,600 - $12,600 = $2,000U

6 0
3 years ago
The CEO of the company you are interning for states that her number one goal for the year is to maximize the company’s profit.
Zanzabum

Answer:

Explanation:

Profit maximization objective can easily be manipulated and it is highly subjective. Management may decide to avoid some costs in the short-term such as Investment in Assets, Investment in R &D and other discretionary cost in order to have an impressive profit performance. In the long-run, the avoidance of this cost now may reduce the earnings capacity of the company assets.

Using profit as measure of performance for manager may encourages dysfunctional behavior.

In the true sense, profit generation may not translate into increase in the value of the company . For example, management may decide to reduce depreciation charge, decide to over state revenue or over valued inventory

On other hand, maximizing shareholder value is a long-term and sustainable objective that involved investing in viable projects with positive net present value to enhance the value of the company.

When this is used as a performance measure , it very difficult to manipulate in the short-term.

6 0
4 years ago
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