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tatuchka [14]
3 years ago
14

In order to accurately assess the capital structure of a firm, it is necessary to convert its balance sheet figures from histori

cal book values to market values. KJM Corporation's balance sheet (book values) as of today is as follows: Long-term debt (bonds, at par) $23,500,000 Preferred stock 2,000,000 Common stock ($10 par) 10,000,000 Retained earnings 4,000,000 Total debt and equity $39,500,000 The bonds have a 7.0% coupon rate, payable semiannually, and a par value of $1,000. They mature exactly 10 years from today. The yield to maturity is 11%, so the bonds now sell below par. What is the current market value of the firm's debt? $17,436,237 $17,883,320 $18,330,403 $17,706,000 $17,898,650
Business
1 answer:
Inessa [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The MV of Debt is $17,883,320.

Explanation:

The answer to this question involves three step process.

Step 1) Calculate the Price of Each Bond

You must have known that when we discount the future cash flows of bond, that is coupon payments and Face value, we get the Price of that Bond. You will get the price of each bond to be $760.99. I have attached an Excel Sheet, it will help you to understand.

Note: Remember to consider YTM and Number of Periods on Semi-Annual Basis because the coupon payments are to be made Semi-Annually.

Step 2) Determine the Number of Bonds

We know that

     Value of Debt (23,500,000) = Par Value (1,000) * Number of Bonds (x)

Rearrange the equation for Number of Bonds and you will get 23,500.

Step 3) Market Value of Debt

Simply multiply the Price of Each Bond with the Number of Bonds and the answer is $17,883,320.

Thanks!

Download xlsx
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Jeff Co. sells its giant cheese wheels for $36 per wheel. The contribution margin ratio is 75% and total fixed costs are $270,00
Damm [24]

Answer:

Level of sales in dollars in order to generate a profit of $54,000 Fixed cost + Target profit/Contribution per unit $270,000 + $54,0000/0.75

= $432,000

Number of units to be sold

= Level of sales/Selling price

= $432,000/$36

= 12,000 units

The correct answer is A

Explanation:

In this case, we need to calculate level of sales in dollars, which is fixed cost plus target profit divided by contribution margin ratio. Then, we will calculate no of units to be sold, which is the level of sales divided by selling price.

7 0
3 years ago
1. According to Wallach, what is short-termism, and why is it a problem?
Aleks04 [339]

I inferred you are to the 2017 TEDx talk "Short-termism is killing us: it's time for Long path" by Ari Wallach.

<u>Explanation:</u>

According to Wallach, he refers to short-termism as focusing on short-term results at the expense of long-term interests.

In his words, short-termism is a problem because;

  • "it prevents the CEO from buying really expensive safety equipment"
  • "prevents teachers from spending quality one-on-one time with their students".

So in summary what Wallach is saying is that short-termism prevents futuristic thinking.

6 0
2 years ago
On June 30, 2020, Sarasota Company issued $3,340,000 face value of 14%, 20-year bonds at $3,842,540, a yield of 12%. Sarasota us
ki77a [65]

Answer:

1) June 30, 2020, bonds are issued at a premium

Dr Cash 3,842,540

    Cr Bonds payable 3,340,000

    Cr Premium on bonds payable 502,540

2) December 31, 2020, first coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 230,552.40

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,247.60

    Cr Cash 233,800

amortization of bond premium = ($3,842,540 x 6%) - $233,800 = -$3,247.60

3) June 30, 2021, second coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 230,357.54

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,442.46

    Cr Cash 233,800

amortization of bond premium = ($3,839,292.40 x 6%) - $233,800 = -$3,442.46

4) December 31, 2021, third coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 230,151

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,649

    Cr Cash 233,800

amortization of bond premium = ($3,835,849.94 x 6%) - $233,800 = -$3,649

5 0
2 years ago
Litton Company estimates that the factory overhead for the following year will be $1,250,000. The company has decided that the b
Minchanka [31]

Answer:

Overapplied overhead= $7,575

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 1,250,000 / 40,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $31.25 per machine hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 31.25*4,780

Allocated MOH= $149,375

<u>Finally, the over/under allocation:</u>

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 141,800 - 149,375

Overapplied overhead= $7,575

6 0
3 years ago
Martha Manufacturing produces a single product that sells for $80. Variable costs per unit equal $32. The company expects total
garri49 [273]
Each unit sells: $80
Each unit costs to make: $32
Fixed costs: 72,000
Goal: 2,000 units sold

If they meet their goal, let's see how that would go:

(2,000 * 80) - (2,000 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
160,000 - 64,000 - 72,000 = 24,000

24,000 is the profit they would make for hitting their goal.

Question 1:
What is the break-even point? The break-even means they make no money, but they also lose no money. So that final number (24,000) would be 0 instead. How many units would they have to make to hit zero?
(x * 80) - (x * 32) - 72,000 = 0.
80x - 32x = 72,000
48x = 72,000
x = 1500 units

We can verify by using our first formula we've already determined, using this new value for units.
(1,500* 80) - (1,500 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
120,000 - 48,000 - 72,000 = 0? True!

Question 2: If they increase their expenses by 16,000, what is their new break even point?

(x * 80) - (x * 32) - 72,000 - 16000 = 0.
80x - 32x - 88000 = 0
48x = 88000
x = 1833

Question 3: 10% reduction in selling price and 10% increase in sales. (Assuming based off the original formula the problem provided.)

Original: (2,000 * 80) - (2,000 * 32) - 72,000 = ?

10% Reduction in price: 8
80-8 = 72

10% increase in sales: 200
2000 + 200 = 2200

Plugin to our formula:
(2200 * 72) - (2200 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
158400 - 70400 - 72,000 = 16,000

Since this number is positive, this is income. (D)
7 0
3 years ago
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