Answer:
Year 1 PV = 91,743.12
Year 2 PV =126,251.99
Year 3 PV = 154,436.70
Explanation:
<em>The present value of future sum is the amount that ought to be invested today at interest rate compounded annually to equal the sum at the end of a particular period.</em>
The present value of a future sum is given as follows:
PV = FV × PV (1+r)^(-n)
PV - present value
FV - Future value
r- interest rate
n- number of years
Year 1 PV = 100,000× 1.09^(-1) =91,743.12
Year 2 PV = 150,000× 1.09^(-2) =126,251.99
Year 3 PV = 200,000× 1.09^(-3) = 154,436.70
Answer:
left as well as the contractionary monetary policy, then bring about the
increase of interest rate as well as reducing equilibrium quantity of money.
Explanation:
Liquidity Preference model can be regarded as a model gives suggestions about investor and interest rate, the model entails that high interest rate as well as premium on securities associated with long-term maturities with higher risk should be demanded by investors, reason behind this suggestions is that most investors will always go for cash as well as available highly liquid holdings, all things been equal. It should be noted that Using the liquidity-preference model, the Federal Reserve can react to the threat of exceedingly high inflation via monetary policy by shifting the supply of money to the left as well as the contractionary monetary policy, then bring about the increase of interest rate as well as reducing equilibrium quantity of money.
C. increase in the interest rate
Answer:
A Debit to manufacturing overhead for $9,000
Explanation:
Based on the information given in a situation where the Corporation recently used the amount of $9,000 of indirect materials during the production activities which means that The journal entries that will reflect these transactions would include a DEBIT to MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD of the amount of $9,000 which is the amount of indirect materials that was used during the production activities
A debit to manufacturing overhead for $9,000
Answer:
The total number of scooters is 10
Explanation:
Total profit is maximized where Marginal Revenue (MR) = Total Marginal Cost
= 50 + 50 + 50 + 50 = $200
TR = P × Q = (300 - 5Q) × Q = 300Q - 5Q²
So, MR = 
= 300 - 2(5Q) = 300 - 10Q
Now, MR = 200 gives,
300 - 10Q = 200
So, 10Q = 300 - 200 = 100
So, Q = 
So, Q = 10
