Answer:
Portfolio A and Portfolio B
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
The Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) = Market risk premium
Let us assume the market risk premium be X
For Portfolio A:
21% = 8% + 1.3 × X
13% = 1.3 × X
So, the X = 10%
For Portfolio B:
17% = 8% + 0.7 × X
9% = 0.7 × X
So, the X = 12.86%
Based on the market risk premium calculations, we can conclude that Portfolio A should be in short position while Portfolio B should be in long position as portfolio B has higher market risk premium than B
Answer:
In order to make the distribution to common shareholders, each preferred share must be paid a dividend of:
$5 per share.
Explanation:
The preferred stock is non-cumulative. This implies that XYZ's preferred stockholders are not being owed for the previous two year's dividend that was not paid. Non-cumulative preferred stock does not attract dividend arrears whenever it was not declared. It is cumulative preferred stock that attracts such arrears to be carried forward until they are paid.
Answer:
$90,000
Explanation:
In this question, we compare the net income and the difference should be reported
In the first case, the net income is
= Revenue - expense
= $1,000,000 - $750,000
= $250,000
In the first case, the net income is
= Revenue - expense
where,
Revenue is = $1,000,000 + $150,000 = $1,150,000
And, the expenses is $750,000 + $60,000 = $810,000
= $1,150,000 - $810,000
= $340,000
So, the net profit is increased by
= $340,000 - $250,000
= $90,000
Given that a<span>
factory machine was purchased for $375000 on january 1, 2018. it was
estimated that it would have a $75000 salvage value at the end of its
5-year useful life. it was also estimated that the machine would be run
40000 hours in the 5 years. the company ran the machine for 4000 actual
hours in 2018.
If the company uses the units-of-activity method of
depreciation, the amount of depreciation expense for 2018 would be
![\frac{375000-75000}{40000} \times4000= \frac{300000}{10} =\$30,000](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7B375000-75000%7D%7B40000%7D%20%5Ctimes4000%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B300000%7D%7B10%7D%20%3D%5C%2430%2C000)
</span>
Answer:
$3,233.12
Explanation:
Data given in the question
Purchase value of two coins = $790
First coin rate = 7.3%
Second coin rate = 6.7%
So, after considering the above information, the amount worth in 20 years
= Purchase value of two coins ×(1 + interest rate)^number of years
= $790 × (1 + 0.073)^20
= $790 × 4.0925541961
= $3,233.12