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Bas_tet [7]
4 years ago
10

HELP ASAP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Contact [7]4 years ago
4 0
<span>The correct answer is: Option (A) </span>\frac{v-z}{w-x}<span>
 
Explanation:
If both lines are parallel, then their slopes must be equal.
 
For the line PQ, the slope is:
Slope of PQ = </span>\frac{v-z}{w-x} --- (1)
 
For the line P'Q', the slope is:
Slope of P'Q' = \frac{v+b-z-b}{w+a-x-a} 
Slope of P'Q' = \frac{v-z}{w-x} --- (2)
 
As (1) = (2), hence the lines are parallel and their slope is \frac{v-z}{w-x} (Option A).
PIT_PIT [208]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Slope of both the lines are same.

Step-by-step explanation:

Line PQ contains points P(x,z) and Q(w,v)

similarly line P'Q' contains points P'(x+a, z+b) and Q'(w+a, v+b)

As we know slope of parallel lines are same, so to prove PQ and P'Q' we will show that these lines have same slope.

Slope of PQ = \frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}=\frac{v-z}{w-x}

Slope of P'Q' = \frac{y_{2-y_{1} } }{x_{2}-x_{1}}

= \frac{(v+b)-(z+b)}{(w+a)-(x+a)}

= \frac{v+b-z-b}{w+a-x-a}=\frac{v-z}{w-x}

So slope of both the lines are same, and both the lines have slope equivalent to \frac{(v-z)}{(w-x)}

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