Answer:
New price (P1) = $72.88
Explanation:
Given:
Risk-free rate of interest (Rf) = 5%
Expected rate of market return (Rm) = 17%
Old price (P0) = $64
Dividend (D) = $2
Beta (β) = 1.0
New price (P1) = ?
Computation of expected rate on return:
Expected rate on return (r) = Rf + β(Rm - Rf)
Expected rate on return (r) = 5% + 1.0(17% - 5%)
Expected rate on return (r) = 5% + 1.0(12%)
Expected rate on return (r) = 5% + 12%
Expected rate on return (r) = 17%
Computation:
Expected rate on return (r) = (D + P1 - P0) / P0
17% = ($2 + P1 - $64) / $64
0.17 = (2 + P1 - $64) / $64
10.88 = P1 - $62
New price (P1) = $72.88
Answer:
d. $29,580.
Explanation:
Note: The data in the question are merged together and they are first sorted and separated as given in the attached file before the question is answered.
Cost individually incurred by Maintenance = $25,500
Share of Payroll Department cost = $20,400 * (15/75) = $4,080
Total Maintenance Cost = $25,500 + $4,080 = $29,580.
Therefore, he total cost of operating the Maintenance Department for the current period is d. $29,580.
Answer: $4,000 is ordinary income. No Capital gain
Explanation:
In 2017 and 2018, total Section 1231 losses are:
= 3,300 + 3,100
= $6,400
The Section 1231 gain in 2019 falls below the combined losses from the previous years of 2017 and 2018 so will not be counted as a capital gain as those losses are not yet being recaptured.
The entire $4,000 is therefore ordinary income.
Answer:
$355 unfavorable
Explanation:
Budgeted supplies cost was [$1,860 + (635 frames x $ 11)] = ($1,860 + $6,985) = $8,845
Actual supplies cost was $9,200, so the variance was = budgeted cost - actual cost = $8,845 - $9,200 = $355 unfavorable
Since the actual supplies cost was higher than the budgeted supplies cost, then the variance must be unfavorable (because more money was spent than expected).
The customer changing their mind or the customer not having enough money
